Question 780

An organization must isolate tenants over a shared physical WAN underlay and apply separate overlay routing domains. Which option should the architect select?

  1. Peer the virtual routers with Transit Gateway Connect using BGP
  2. Use Generic Routing Encapsulation between compatible network devices
  3. Design distinct tenant overlay routing and transit route-table segmentation
  4. Use Transit Gateway Connect and Connect peers
  5. Encapsulate branch traffic in IPsec VPN tunnels

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

With this choice, the selected action separates policy and reachability over otherwise shared transport infrastructure; merely adding another VLAN ID does not enforce every inter-VPC route boundary, providing tenant-isolated SD-WAN connectivity for the network described.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Although this setting allows the appliance to advertise and learn supported network routes over GRE peers, an ALB does not exchange overlay routing control-plane updates; this concerns routed integration of SD-WAN appliances, not the specified tenant-isolated SD-WAN connectivity.

B:

The proposed action wraps IP traffic inside GRE for overlay forwarding; IPsec provides cryptographic protections but is not the same as a plain GRE transport, supporting protocol encapsulation for an overlay tunnel but leaving tenant-isolated SD-WAN connectivity unmet.

D:

This alternative transports GRE overlay traffic and exchanges routes over BGP with compatible appliances; a simple VPC attachment alone does not establish GRE Connect peers, so it addresses native transit attachment for SD-WAN overlays rather than the required tenant-isolated SD-WAN connectivity.

E:

Although this setting adds IP-layer encryption and peer authentication across the intervening network, GRE alone provides encapsulation without confidentiality; this concerns encrypted overlay communications, not the specified tenant-isolated SD-WAN connectivity.

Question 781

A packet capture shows repeated TCP retransmissions but VPC Flow Logs report ACCEPT. What is the most suitable design or configuration?

  1. Investigate packet loss, MTU, congestion, and host transport behavior
  2. Investigate path MTU and adjust MSS clamping or packet size appropriately
  3. Check EFA supported instance, placement group and network prerequisites
  4. Check end-to-end VLAN, router, and host MTU compatibility

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

This configuration distinguishes allowed traffic from reliable end-to-end transport delivery; flow-log ACCEPT does not guarantee successful application-level transmission, so it delivers cause of retransmissions in an apparently allowed flow under the stated constraints.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Although this setting limits TCP segment sizes to fit encapsulated network paths, increasing BGP timers will not repair fragmentation-related black holes; this concerns avoidance of oversized packets across IPsec tunnels, not the specified cause of retransmissions in an apparently allowed flow.

C:

The proposed action validates low-latency ENA/EFA transport assumptions for clustered HPC; ordinary internet-facing ALB routing is not the EFA data path, supporting correct placement for low-latency inter-node traffic but leaving cause of retransmissions in an apparently allowed flow unmet.

D:

This approach verifies every device on the traffic path can process the selected frame size; enabling jumbo MTU on only one interface can create size mismatches, which helps with valid large-frame transport across the hybrid link instead of delivering cause of retransmissions in an apparently allowed flow.

Question 782

A private DNS administrator has correct resource records but clients cannot resolve names because VPC DHCP options point exclusively to unreachable custom resolvers. What should the network specialist configure?

  1. Enable Route 53 Resolver query logging and associate the query log configuration
  2. Correct DHCP options to use accessible DNS servers that can reach the VPC resolver
  3. Associate Resolver DNS Firewall rule groups that block the relevant domain lists
  4. Configure an ordered DNS Firewall rule group with intended allow and block actions

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The approach ensures instances send DNS questions to a functioning recursive path; published records do not help clients that query the wrong DNS server, directly enabling usable instance resolver configuration in this situation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This approach emits supported recursive query events from included VPCs; authoritative public-zone query logging covers a different query vantage point, which helps with central VPC resolver query evidence instead of delivering usable instance resolver configuration.

C:

Although this setting filters recursive DNS names before normal resolution where configured, a public hosted zone health check does not inspect workload resolver traffic; this concerns enforced malicious-domain DNS query blocking, not the specified usable instance resolver configuration.

D:

The proposed action evaluates matching queries using prioritized DNS Firewall domain list rules; rule group association alone is not sufficient if action priorities are wrong, supporting predictable DNS policy ordering but leaving usable instance resolver configuration unmet.

Question 783

A data warehouse needs access to public AWS service IP prefixes over Direct Connect without traversing ordinary internet transit. Which action directly resolves the stated problem?

  1. Create a Direct Connect private VIF to the target virtual private gateway
  2. Establish a Direct Connect public VIF with appropriate public routing
  3. Use a transit VIF to a Direct Connect gateway associated with the Transit Gateway
  4. Associate multiple supported VGWs with a Direct Connect gateway

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

This configuration reaches AWS public service endpoints using public-address BGP advertisements; a private VIF provides private VPC reachability, not general public endpoint access, so it delivers dedicated-path access to AWS public IP services under the stated constraints.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed action exchanges private routing for VPC connectivity over Direct Connect; a public VIF is aimed at public AWS service prefixes instead, supporting private VPC routing on a dedicated connection but leaving dedicated-path access to AWS public IP services unmet.

C:

This alternative supplies BGP routing into the transit gateway architecture through a DX gateway; private VIFs attached per-VGW would add repeated VPC-specific connectivity management, so it addresses private connectivity to multiple TGW-attached VPCs rather than the required dedicated-path access to AWS public IP services.

D:

Although this setting enables private VIF reachability to multiple associated virtual private gateways, a DX gateway distributes routing information rather than serving as a general internet router; this concerns cross-Region private gateway access through DX, not the specified dedicated-path access to AWS public IP services.

Question 784

An on-premises router should make one advertised path less attractive to AWS than another path for identical prefixes. What should the network specialist configure?

  1. Prepend the on-premises ASN on the less-preferred BGP advertisement where applicable
  2. Raise the local preference of the desired route on the customer router
  3. Advertise suitable summarized CIDR prefixes over BGP
  4. Use routing policy to prefer one BGP path while retaining a valid alternate

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

This configuration lengthens the AS_PATH attribute seen by peers for route choice; AWS route priorities and local connection details can affect the complete decision, so it delivers inbound path preference toward the shorter advertised AS path under the stated constraints.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This approach applies a local BGP selection preference before many interdomain attributes; local preference is not generally transmitted to external BGP peers, which helps with customer-side egress route selection instead of delivering inbound path preference toward the shorter advertised AS path.

C:

This alternative aggregates adjacent networks into fewer routing announcements; summaries must not accidentally include unreachable networks or overlapping ownership, so it addresses scalable dynamic prefix advertising rather than the required inbound path preference toward the shorter advertised AS path.

D:

Although this setting influences BGP path selection without removing the standby advertisement, simply deleting the backup route would prevent automatic rerouting; this concerns active-passive hybrid routing, not the specified inbound path preference toward the shorter advertised AS path.

Question 785

A sensitive workload must reside in subnets with no direct IPv4 internet route. Which change is the most appropriate?

  1. Introduce a routed inspection VPC with Transit Gateway and stateful firewall insertion
  2. Use PrivateLink endpoint services instead of full peering
  3. Separate network administrative IAM roles from application deployment IAM roles
  4. Place the instances in private subnets without an IGW route and supply only approved endpoints

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

With this choice, the selected action avoids direct inbound and outbound public paths through the subnet routing design; a public IP association alone does not override an absent internet gateway route, providing isolated workload network placement for the network described.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Although this setting steers inter-VPC traffic through approved inspection before delivery, security groups on each workload do not provide central packet inspection visibility; this concerns enforced cross-VPC inspection and segmentation, not the specified isolated workload network placement.

B:

The proposed action narrows private connectivity to specific approved services; peering makes a broader routed network available subject to downstream controls, supporting service-only isolation between provider and consumer but leaving isolated workload network placement unmet.

C:

This approach constrains control-plane authority over shared network resources; subnet participation does not imply permission to rewrite central routes, which helps with least-privilege tenant administration in shared networks instead of delivering isolated workload network placement.

Question 786

A VPN's IKE session succeeds but IPsec child SAs fail because encryption and PFS parameters disagree. Which solution best addresses these network requirements?

  1. Align IKE proposal algorithms and versions with supported AWS tunnel options
  2. Permit required VPN IKE and NAT-T traffic through intervening firewalls
  3. Align phase-two IPsec proposals and relevant perfect-forward-secrecy groups
  4. Use supported link-local tunnel-inside CIDRs according to AWS VPN configuration rules

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

With this choice, the selected action negotiates compatible ESP and child security association settings; a working initial IKE exchange does not prove phase-two compatibility, providing successful data-plane IPsec tunnel establishment for the network described.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This alternative ensures both IPsec peers negotiate compatible phase-one security parameters; a VPC route adjustment cannot repair phase-one crypto incompatibility, so it addresses successful IKE security-association establishment rather than the required successful data-plane IPsec tunnel establishment.

B:

Although this setting enables negotiation packets for IPsec peers behind address translation, a TCP listener rule is not relevant to IKE UDP negotiation; this concerns uninterrupted IPsec control traffic across NAT devices, not the specified successful data-plane IPsec tunnel establishment.

D:

This approach establishes the logical point-to-point addressing used by the tunnel interfaces; reusing conflicting tunnel inside addresses can break router configuration, which helps with valid inside IP addressing for VPN routing instead of delivering successful data-plane IPsec tunnel establishment.

Question 787

A security analyst sees EC2 response packets accepted without an outbound rule mirroring each approved inbound session. Which action provides the required behavior?

  1. Rely on security-group connection tracking for return traffic
  2. Add a numbered deny rule to the subnet network ACL
  3. Restrict the instance security group's egress rules to the proxy destination and port
  4. Create an inbound database security-group rule referencing the application security group
  5. Add correct outbound ephemeral-port permissions and compatible inbound rules

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

This configuration permits return packets of established allowed flows under stateful evaluation; NACLs remain stateless and need appropriate rules in both directions, so it delivers automatic response permission for established EC2 flows under the stated constraints.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This alternative evaluates stateless subnet ingress and egress rules in number order; security groups allow approved traffic but do not contain explicit deny rules, so it addresses CIDR-specific subnet boundary rejection rather than the required automatic response permission for established EC2 flows.

C:

Although this setting limits initiations leaving resources attached to the group, broad 0.0.0.0/0 egress would let instances bypass the intended proxy; this concerns least-privilege EC2 outbound connection control, not the specified automatic response permission for established EC2 flows.

D:

The proposed action authorizes stateful source membership rather than an entire shifting address range; security group references avoid maintaining fixed instance IP lists, supporting narrowly scoped database access from application instances but leaving automatic response permission for established EC2 flows unmet.

E:

This approach handles stateless packet filtering in both directions of a connection; authorizing only the destination listener port ignores the client's return-port range, which helps with completed bidirectional TCP sessions through a subnet ACL instead of delivering automatic response permission for established EC2 flows.

Question 788

A mail administrator needs reverse DNS for a public IP under a delegated in-addr.arpa zone. Which action directly resolves the stated problem?

  1. Create a Route 53 alias A record to the load balancer
  2. Add a CNAME at a non-apex owner name
  3. Create the vendor-specified TXT record
  4. Configure the appropriate PTR resource record under the reverse DNS namespace

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The approach maps a reverse-address DNS name back to a host name; ordinary A records map forward from host names to IPv4 addresses instead, directly enabling IP-to-name reverse DNS lookup in this situation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Although this setting returns address answers for supported AWS resources without violating apex CNAME restrictions, alias records can also track the target's changing addresses without an ordinary CNAME at the root; this concerns apex-domain mapping to an AWS load balancer, not the specified IP-to-name reverse DNS lookup.

B:

The proposed action makes a DNS name an alias of a canonical host name during recursive resolution; a CNAME cannot normally coexist with other record types at the same owner name, supporting hostname-to-hostname aliasing for a subdomain but leaving IP-to-name reverse DNS lookup unmet.

C:

This approach stores arbitrary DNS text values frequently used for verification and email security; changing NS delegation is unnecessary for a simple text token challenge, which helps with domain-ownership proof through DNS text instead of delivering IP-to-name reverse DNS lookup.

Question 789

A CloudFront edge application needs sub-minute investigation of bot-origin requests instead of waiting for standard log batches. Which action directly resolves the stated problem?

  1. Apply restrictive bucket access and suitable S3 retention or Object Lock controls
  2. Enable ALB access logs to an appropriately controlled S3 bucket
  3. Use CloudFront real-time logging to an appropriate streaming destination
  4. Configure cross-account flow log delivery to a governed S3 logging destination

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The approach delivers selected viewer-request fields with low latency to consumers; traditional access-log delivery is not a low-latency event stream, directly enabling timely CDN security request evidence in this situation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This alternative protects stored audit evidence against premature or unauthorized removal; encryption at rest does not itself prohibit deletion of encrypted log objects, so it addresses policy-enforced log archive immutability rather than the required timely CDN security request evidence.

B:

Although this setting retains request-level load-balancer records beyond ephemeral target lifetimes, raw flow logs do not include full HTTP request paths; this concerns long-term application ingress audit data, not the specified timely CDN security request evidence.

D:

This approach stores standardized network-flow metadata beyond individual workload accounts; ad hoc per-instance logging cannot provide consistent coverage, which helps with centralized multi-account traffic retention instead of delivering timely CDN security request evidence.

Question 790

Security administrators need to apply common WAF protection across ALBs owned by dozens of accounts. How should this network requirement be implemented?

  1. Apply an appropriately scoped AWS Organizations service control policy
  2. Deploy AWS Config rules or conformance packs for the network configuration
  3. Use AWS Firewall Manager policies with appropriate organizational scope
  4. Share supported security and networking resources using AWS RAM under approved principals
  5. Enable organization-wide management-event logging with protected central retention

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

With this choice, the selected action centrally manages eligible firewall protections for organization resources; creating one web ACL in the management account does not attach it to every account's ALBs, providing consistent multi-account WAF deployment governance for the network described.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed action establishes organization-level maximum permissions for member accounts; an SCP limits permissions but does not enable a missing logging resource by itself, supporting organization-enforced restrictions on disabling controls but leaving consistent multi-account WAF deployment governance unmet.

B:

This approach evaluates recorded resource configurations against defined compliance conditions; Config reports compliance rather than inherently blocking a change at the API call, which helps with continuous detection of noncompliant network rule changes instead of delivering consistent multi-account WAF deployment governance.

D:

Although this setting distributes use of centrally owned network resources across accounts, RAM sharing is not a universal replacement for IAM resource authorization; this concerns governed multi-account network resource access, not the specified consistent multi-account WAF deployment governance.

E:

The proposed action records who called networking control-plane APIs and when; traffic flow telemetry cannot identify the IAM principal that changed a route, supporting attributable network infrastructure modifications but leaving consistent multi-account WAF deployment governance unmet.

AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Practice Tests