Question 800
A private API uses certificate-based machine authentication and requires different issuing policies for services. What is the best next configuration decision?
- Define AWS Private CA subordinate CA and issuance controls
- Request an ACM public certificate with successful domain validation
- Revoke the affected private CA certificate and publish supported revocation information
- Distribute the private CA trust anchor to intended client trust stores
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:This configuration delegates private certificate issuance within a governed PKI hierarchy; a single unrestricted public certificate issuance workflow cannot enforce internal machine identity policy, so it delivers controlled workload certificate identities under the stated constraints.
Incorrect Answers
B:The proposed action obtains publicly trusted certificates for supported integrated services; a certificate from an internal private CA is not automatically trusted by internet browsers, supporting public domain TLS identity and trust but leaving controlled workload certificate identities unmet.
C:This approach tells relying parties that the compromised certificate should no longer be trusted; merely removing the certificate from one server does not invalidate all copies, which helps with controlled PKI response to exposed keys instead of delivering controlled workload certificate identities.
D:This alternative establishes certificate-chain trust for privately issued endpoint certificates; server-side certificate installation alone does not make clients trust a private issuer, so it addresses accepted private-service TLS validation rather than the required controlled workload certificate identities.
Question 801
An administrator must create a public DNS alias for the root domain that points to a CloudFront distribution. What is the best next configuration decision?
- Add the child zone's authoritative NS records in the parent hosted zone
- Replace the domain registration's NS delegation with the new hosted-zone set
- Use a Route 53 alias A/AAAA record as appropriate to the distribution
- Update the private hosted zone's record set to the new reachable target
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:This configuration maps apex names to supported AWS resources without an apex CNAME; ordinary CNAME records are restricted at a zone apex, so it delivers valid apex routing to CloudFront under the stated constraints.
Incorrect Answers
A:This alternative publishes delegated name-server referrals for that subdomain; creation of the child zone alone does not redirect recursion to it, so it addresses separate administrative authority for a child namespace rather than the required valid apex routing to CloudFront.
B:Although this setting aligns the parent delegation with the active Route 53 nameservers, simply updating an A record cannot fix a stale delegation at the registrar; this concerns restored public DNS authority after zone recreation, not the specified valid apex routing to CloudFront.
D:This approach refreshes the authoritative internal DNS answer for associated VPCs; DNS TTL propagation must be considered when assessing when clients observe changes, which helps with correct private service address after migration instead of delivering valid apex routing to CloudFront.
Question 802
A CloudFront cache behavior sends too many origin requests because its TTL is effectively zero despite public static content. What is the most suitable design or configuration?
- Reduce applicable DNS TTLs before planned changes and consider stable anycast ingress where required
- Use Route 53 latency-based records among regional endpoints
- Use AWS Global Accelerator for supported regional application endpoints
- Reduce needless cache-key dimensions in the CloudFront cache policy
- Set suitable cache TTL controls consistent with origin Cache-Control headers
Explanation
Correct Answer
E:This configuration permits safe edge reuse of static responses for a defined period; caching private personalized responses by extending TTL would be unsafe, so it delivers fewer unnecessary origin fetches under the stated constraints.
Incorrect Answers
A:This approach limits the duration of stale DNS answers during endpoint migrations; lowering a TTL after clients already cache a larger value cannot retroactively expire those caches, which helps with managed DNS cutover convergence instead of delivering fewer unnecessary origin fetches.
B:This alternative bases DNS selection on AWS regional latency observations; DNS caching and resolver placement affect what end users observe, so it addresses resolver-directed traffic toward lower-latency Regions rather than the required fewer unnecessary origin fetches.
C:Although this setting routes traffic into the AWS backbone through anycast edge addresses, caching with CloudFront is a different optimization for eligible HTTP objects; this concerns global dynamic-traffic ingress optimization, not the specified fewer unnecessary origin fetches.
D:The proposed action shares equivalent cached responses across more viewer requests; necessary content-variation dimensions must remain in the key to prevent incorrect responses, supporting improved CDN cache efficiency but leaving fewer unnecessary origin fetches unmet.
Question 803
An incident responder needs a record of attempted connections to a sensitive EC2 database, including denied network flows. What should the network specialist configure?
- Add supported pkt-srcaddr and pkt-dstaddr fields to the Flow Logs format
- Use Athena over a suitable Flow Logs dataset and aggregate by IP fields
- Account for Flow Logs exclusions, aggregation intervals, and collection limitations
- Turn on VPC Flow Logs at the database ENI and retain ACCEPT/REJECT records
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:This configuration records packet-flow metadata and network allow or reject disposition; application database logs will not see packets denied before arrival, so it delivers forensic visibility into database connection attempts under the stated constraints.
Incorrect Answers
A:The proposed action exposes packet-origin addressing distinct from some observation-interface values; the default field set may not capture the original addresses needed for this question, supporting better attribution of original communicating IP endpoints but leaving forensic visibility into database connection attempts unmet.
B:This approach supports SQL analysis of archived network records; CloudTrail does not provide per-connection byte counts for data-plane network flows, which helps with historical large-scale flow anomaly investigation instead of delivering forensic visibility into database connection attempts.
C:This alternative treats absence of flow metadata as incomplete evidence rather than certainty; not all AWS-reserved traffic is recorded like an ordinary ENI flow, so it addresses defensible interpretation of VPC flow record gaps rather than the required forensic visibility into database connection attempts.
Question 804
An operations team needs AWS Config to control which accounts can modify a private DNS zone. Which action provides the required behavior?
- Apply resource-scope IAM and governance controls to hosted-zone management
- Share the appropriate Resolver rule via RAM and associate the recipient VPCs
- Create separate private hosted zones and scope their VPC associations
- Associate the workload VPC with the appropriate private hosted zone
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:With this choice, the selected action regulates who can change private DNS record sets; VPC association grants resolution, not the authority to edit records, providing restricted administrative changes to private DNS for the network described.
Incorrect Answers
B:The proposed action distributes conditional forwarding policy across accounts; zone association serves AWS-hosted private records rather than external DNS forwarding, supporting cross-account use of a central forwarding rule but leaving restricted administrative changes to private DNS unmet.
C:This approach selects different private record sets depending on the VPC resolver context; one shared global private zone would give the same records to all associated VPCs, which helps with environment-specific split-private DNS answers instead of delivering restricted administrative changes to private DNS.
D:This alternative extends the private authoritative namespace to the new VPC resolver; TGW connectivity between VPCs does not imply shared hosted-zone resolution, so it addresses private record visibility for the workload account rather than the required restricted administrative changes to private DNS.
Question 805
A private subnet has a 0.0.0.0/0 route to a NAT gateway and an S3 gateway endpoint route pointing to the AWS-managed S3 prefix list. When a workload contacts an S3 address that matches the prefix list, which VPC route is selected?
- The more-specific S3 prefix-list route toward the gateway endpoint, rather than the default NAT route
- The existing NAT default route, because routes are processed in creation-time order
- No route, because an S3 gateway endpoint cannot coexist with internet egress through NAT
- The route to the internet gateway in the public subnet, bypassing the private subnet's table
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:VPC routing uses the best matching destination route. For S3 addresses included in the endpoint's managed prefix list, its specific destination route takes precedence over a 0.0.0.0/0 NAT route, avoiding unnecessary NAT processing.
Incorrect Answers
B:A default route is a catch-all used when no more specific destination is matched. VPC routes are not selected according to when they were created, so the S3 endpoint route wins for matching traffic.
C:Gateway endpoint routes and a NAT default route can exist in the same private subnet route table. The endpoint changes the path for eligible service addresses without eliminating other outbound connectivity.
D:An instance uses its own subnet's effective route table. The public subnet's internet gateway route does not automatically override the private subnet's chosen endpoint path.
Question 806
A Transit Gateway route table must deliberately reject all traffic to a decommissioned 10.80.0.0/16 network even if other propagated aggregate routes would otherwise match it. Which entry should an administrator create?
- Create a static blackhole route for 10.80.0.0/16 in the applicable transit gateway route table
- Associate the VPC attachment with every available transit gateway route table
- Add a more-specific propagating attachment route for the retired CIDR
- Create a Route 53 private hosted zone for the retired CIDR
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:A transit gateway blackhole route discards packets matching the destination prefix. The explicit more-specific route can prevent packets from following a broader available route toward an attachment for that retired network.
Incorrect Answers
B:Each transit gateway attachment is associated with one route table for its ingress lookup. Attempting broader association does not specify a drop policy for the decommissioned prefix.
C:Advertising a destination route would make traffic eligible to be forwarded rather than explicitly discarded. The requested control is a deterministic blackhole, not connectivity to another attachment.
D:DNS authoritative zones map names to records, not IP-prefix forwarding decisions in a transit gateway. A DNS zone cannot block packets addressed directly to 10.80.0.0/16.
Question 807
A TCP service behind Network Load Balancer requires the original connecting client's address and port in a protocol header consumed by an application that cannot rely on source-IP preservation. Which feature should be enabled on the target group?
- Enable X-Forwarded-For headers on a Network Load Balancer TCP listener
- Create a Route 53 TXT record containing every active client's IP address
- Enable Proxy Protocol v2 on the Network Load Balancer target group and update the backend to parse it
- Attach a VPC gateway endpoint policy that permits the original client CIDR
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Proxy Protocol v2 adds connection metadata at the start of a proxied stream, including client addressing information. The application must explicitly understand this binary header; enabling it without backend support can break request parsing.
Incorrect Answers
A:X-Forwarded-For is an HTTP header normally added by application-layer proxies, not a reliable NLB TCP listener mechanism for arbitrary byte streams. The backend expects Proxy Protocol metadata.
B:DNS TXT records do not convey a unique live TCP connection's source address and port to a backend process. The data must accompany each connection at the transport proxy boundary.
D:Endpoint policies govern supported private service access and do not pass connection source metadata to an NLB target. They cannot supply the requested protocol header.
Question 808
An Application Load Balancer target group marks an HTTP service unhealthy even though GET / is successful. The application requires a Host header matching its internal virtual-host name and returns 404 for health probes that lack that name. Which correction should be evaluated?
- Point the ALB listener at a public Route 53 CNAME for the custom hostname
- Disable all target health checks and let the load balancer forward to the broken targets
- Provide a dedicated health-check endpoint that returns the expected success response for the ALB health-check Host header, or adapt the application's virtual-host handling
- Attach a CloudFront Origin Access Control policy to the ALB target group
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:An ALB health check uses a Host header based on the target address and listener port, rather than necessarily using the client-facing hostname. The application must serve a valid health response for the actual probe request if it is to pass target health checks.
Incorrect Answers
A:A listener DNS mapping does not change the Host header sent by the target-group health check. The backend's virtual-host routing would still reject the probe.
B:Target groups depend on health checks to identify usable destinations. Disabling their intended readiness signal removes failure detection and does not fix the virtual-host mismatch.
D:Origin Access Control is a CloudFront mechanism for supported origins, not an ALB health-check Host header configuration. It cannot alter target-group probe behavior.
Question 809
An engineer wants workload A to use VPC B as a hop to VPC C through A-B and B-C peerings. Which action directly resolves the stated problem?
- Enable the VPC peering DNS resolution options
- Add the peer CIDR route to the peering connection in relevant VPC subnet route tables
- Add a direct A-C peer or migrate to an appropriate transit service
- Renumber one VPC or adopt a suitable endpoint-based connectivity pattern
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:The approach creates an explicit path because peer links are nontransitive; B cannot act as a peering transit router for arbitrary third-party destinations, directly enabling valid A-to-C private routing in this situation.
Incorrect Answers
A:This alternative allows qualifying public hostname resolution across peered VPCs to return private addresses; this does not replace Route 53 private hosted-zone association for arbitrary private names, so it addresses private DNS resolution for peered instance hostnames rather than the required valid A-to-C private routing.
B:Although this setting forwards private destination packets over the peer link, the peer VPC must also have an appropriate return route; this concerns source subnet reachability through VPC peering, not the specified valid A-to-C private routing.
D:This approach avoids the overlapping-CIDR restriction on VPC peering; adding more-specific routes cannot make an unsupported overlapping peering connection valid, which helps with viable connectivity with conflicting network address plans instead of delivering valid A-to-C private routing.
Question 810
A manufacturer has private or transit Direct Connect virtual interfaces in two separated locations, both connected to its Direct Connect gateway. It wants traffic to travel directly between the two on-premises locations over AWS's backbone without detouring through a VPC in a Region. What feature should be enabled?
- Configure a public VIF only and expect all private site-to-site prefixes to traverse it
- Create a VPC NAT gateway in one Region to relay all on-premises traffic
- Add a Route 53 weighted record for each data center router's private address
- Enable AWS Direct Connect SiteLink on the eligible virtual interfaces at both locations
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:SiteLink permits private site-to-site traffic between eligible Direct Connect locations over the AWS network while avoiding a transit through an AWS Region. The enabled virtual interfaces must participate in the Direct Connect gateway design.
Incorrect Answers
A:Public VIFs are for AWS public endpoint routing, not SiteLink's private or transit virtual-interface path. A public VIF alone does not implement the requested private branch-to-branch connectivity.
B:A NAT gateway translates outbound traffic from supported VPC subnets and is not a substitute for the Direct Connect SiteLink branch-to-branch backbone path.
C:DNS record weighting influences client name resolution, not direct BGP route exchange or the network path between on-premises Direct Connect locations.