Question 560

A security analyst wants to identify original packet addresses through a NAT-influenced network path. Which action directly resolves the stated problem?

  1. Deliver VPC Flow Logs to a protected central S3 destination with retention controls
  2. Add supported pkt-srcaddr and pkt-dstaddr fields to the Flow Logs format
  3. Use Athena over a suitable Flow Logs dataset and aggregate by IP fields
  4. Turn on VPC Flow Logs at the database ENI and retain ACCEPT/REJECT records

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

This configuration exposes packet-origin addressing distinct from some observation-interface values; the default field set may not capture the original addresses needed for this question, so it delivers better attribution of original communicating IP endpoints under the stated constraints.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed action archives flow records for long-term cross-account audit; local instance disks are not a reliable organization-wide log store, supporting durable governed network activity evidence but leaving better attribution of original communicating IP endpoints unmet.

C:

This alternative supports SQL analysis of archived network records; CloudTrail does not provide per-connection byte counts for data-plane network flows, so it addresses historical large-scale flow anomaly investigation rather than the required better attribution of original communicating IP endpoints.

D:

Although this setting records packet-flow metadata and network allow or reject disposition, application database logs will not see packets denied before arrival; this concerns forensic visibility into database connection attempts, not the specified better attribution of original communicating IP endpoints.

Question 561

A network appliance requires several separately attached private IP interfaces for traffic separation. What should the network specialist configure?

  1. Select supported EC2 instances with Elastic Fabric Adapter and appropriate placement
  2. Attach multiple compatible elastic network interfaces to the EC2 instance
  3. Place the cluster in a cluster placement group when supported
  4. Profile packet rate and use suitable instance networking capabilities with ENA
  5. Enable and verify ENA support and drivers on a compatible instance

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

With this choice, the selected action presents separate interface identities, addresses and security group attachments; placement group settings do not create additional logical interfaces, providing multi-homed EC2 appliance connectivity for the network described.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Although this setting supports optimized HPC communication patterns with an EFA network interface, an ordinary ENI offers baseline networking but not the EFA communication path; this concerns tightly coupled cluster networking performance, not the specified multi-homed EC2 appliance connectivity.

C:

This approach co-locates eligible instances to optimize low-latency network communication; spread placement distributes instances to distinct hardware and serves a different goal, which helps with tightly placed single-AZ compute networking instead of delivering multi-homed EC2 appliance connectivity.

D:

This alternative considers packet-per-second limits and accelerated I/O efficiency; raw advertised gigabits per second do not describe every small-packet workload limit, so it addresses higher sustainable EC2 packet-processing rate rather than the required multi-homed EC2 appliance connectivity.

E:

Although this setting uses enhanced networking capabilities for higher packet-processing performance, increasing a subnet CIDR does not change instance network driver capability; this concerns improved EC2 packet throughput and latency, not the specified multi-homed EC2 appliance connectivity.

Question 562

An appliance needs BGP route exchange on a Connect peer but the external overlay link is now up. Which AWS networking approach meets this constraint?

  1. Create a Transit Gateway Connect attachment and its Connect peer
  2. Configure the BGP peer ASN and inside adjacency parameters for Connect
  3. Correct the Connect peer's TGW and appliance GRE endpoint addresses
  4. Enable compatible ECMP and advertise equivalent routes across the Connect peers

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The approach exchanges supported customer route prefixes across the GRE peer; traffic can be encapsulated even while no usable BGP routes are learned, directly enabling route learning over the established Connect overlay in this situation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This alternative establishes GRE connectivity and BGP control plane between the appliance and TGW; an ordinary VPC attachment cannot replace the Connect peer's overlay interfaces, so it addresses SD-WAN GRE/BGP integration with the transit gateway rather than the required route learning over the established Connect overlay.

C:

The proposed action identifies the two outer tunnel endpoints used for GRE encapsulation; BGP configuration on its own cannot fix the GRE underlay endpoint mismatch, supporting valid transit Connect tunnel endpoint addressing but leaving route learning over the established Connect overlay unmet.

D:

This approach lets eligible Connect paths distribute flows according to transit gateway multipath rules; per-packet reordering should not be assumed as a balancing model, which helps with scalable equal-cost SD-WAN transit instead of delivering route learning over the established Connect overlay.

Question 563

A deployment team wants to combine multiple dedicated Direct Connect physical ports into a logical link at one location. Which action directly resolves the stated problem?

  1. Use diverse customer routers and independent connectivity paths where possible
  2. Design supported equal-cost multipath routing on the relevant transit service
  3. Add a Site-to-Site VPN backup and configure appropriate route preference
  4. Configure a supported Direct Connect link aggregation group

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

This configuration aggregates compatible dedicated connections at the Ethernet link layer; member compatibility and location requirements still apply to the aggregate, so it delivers LAG-based capacity and operational grouping under the stated constraints.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed action removes common failure dependencies from hybrid physical connectivity; multiplying logical VIFs on one router does not fix that router's failure domain, supporting physically independent Direct Connect resilience but leaving LAG-based capacity and operational grouping unmet.

B:

This approach allows eligible equal-cost routes to share traffic over supported attachments; per-flow distribution is not the same as packet-by-packet balancing, which helps with bandwidth sharing among equivalent hybrid paths instead of delivering LAG-based capacity and operational grouping.

C:

This alternative offers IPsec-based alternate connectivity to the customer gateway; BGP policies must prefer the primary connection until failover is needed, so it addresses encrypted hybrid failover beyond the dedicated circuit rather than the required LAG-based capacity and operational grouping.

Question 564

Several regional TGWs must use the same DX entry and the networking team wants minimal per-VPC VIF administration. What should the network specialist configure?

  1. Create a VPN attachment to AWS Transit Gateway
  2. Associate regional TGWs with one DX gateway using a transit VIF
  3. Create a Site-to-Site VPN connection using the VPC's VGW as the target
  4. Enable VGW route propagation in the relevant VPC route table

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

With this choice, the selected action links multiple regional transit routing domains to the on-premises circuit; allowed prefixes and ASN constraints need attention during association, providing centralized hybrid routing across regional hubs for the network described.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This approach terminates the managed VPN service at the shared routing hub; transit gateway route tables must grant each destination access deliberately, which helps with consolidated VPN access to selected VPC attachments instead of delivering centralized hybrid routing across regional hubs.

C:

Although this setting terminates the AWS-side VPN tunnels at the virtual private gateway, a transit gateway is a different termination pattern with broader attachment routing; this concerns VPC-local hybrid VPN termination, not the specified centralized hybrid routing across regional hubs.

D:

The proposed action installs eligible propagated hybrid routes in a VPC route table; merely bringing up a BGP session is not enough when the subnet route table lacks a path, supporting learned routes from a virtual private gateway but leaving centralized hybrid routing across regional hubs unmet.

Question 565

A compliance analyst needs traffic evidence from an appliance that cannot be accessed interactively during an incident. Which AWS networking approach meets this constraint?

  1. Inspect AWS Network Firewall alert and flow log entries
  2. Centralize its network captures and security logs in a protected evidence account
  3. Correlate VPC Flow Logs with CloudTrail route-change events
  4. Combine VPC Flow Logs with Reachability Analyzer and policy inspection

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

This configuration preserves investigation data outside a potentially compromised workload; keeping the sole copy on the appliance leaves it vulnerable to deletion, so it delivers independent retention of inspection evidence under the stated constraints.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Although this setting reports traffic observations and stateful policy matches for the deployed inspection, packet retransmission counters cannot reveal the matched Suricata rule; this concerns evidence of firewall decision criteria, not the specified independent retention of inspection evidence.

C:

This approach links data-plane network activity to control-plane API identity; relying on only a flow log would omit the change principal, which helps with end-to-end incident timeline of traffic and configuration instead of delivering independent retention of inspection evidence.

D:

This alternative correlates observed rejects with a modeled AWS path and controls; ACCEPT/REJECT alone does not identify the exact rule that caused every outcome, so it addresses precise isolation of a blocked network path rather than the required independent retention of inspection evidence.

Question 566

A CloudFront team wants to test a changed cache policy with a small share of real viewer requests before promoting it to the production distribution. Which deployment approach supports this controlled rollout?

  1. Change the production distribution's default behavior immediately for all viewers
  2. Use CloudFront continuous deployment with a staging distribution and a controlled traffic allocation policy
  3. Create an Amazon Route 53 PTR record for a subset of viewer source addresses
  4. Alter the VPC's NAT gateway route for ten percent of backend subnets

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

CloudFront continuous deployment supports staging-distribution configuration testing on an allocation of live traffic before promoting the configuration. It reduces the need to make an immediate all-viewer change to the production distribution.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A direct production update sends every affected request through the untested behavior after deployment. It does not provide a staging distribution or limited-traffic validation.

C:

PTR records map IP addresses to hostnames and do not allocate percentages of CloudFront distribution requests. Reverse DNS is unrelated to progressive delivery of edge configuration.

D:

A NAT gateway route changes private subnet egress, not the viewer-to-CloudFront edge behavior. It cannot stage CloudFront cache policies by viewer traffic fraction.

Question 567

An S3 archive of flow logs must be queried for repeated high-volume connections from one CIDR. What should the network specialist configure?

  1. Turn on VPC Flow Logs at the database ENI and retain ACCEPT/REJECT records
  2. Deliver VPC Flow Logs to a protected central S3 destination with retention controls
  3. Add supported pkt-srcaddr and pkt-dstaddr fields to the Flow Logs format
  4. Account for Flow Logs exclusions, aggregation intervals, and collection limitations
  5. Use Athena over a suitable Flow Logs dataset and aggregate by IP fields

Explanation

Correct Answer

E:

The approach supports SQL analysis of archived network records; CloudTrail does not provide per-connection byte counts for data-plane network flows, directly enabling historical large-scale flow anomaly investigation in this situation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This approach records packet-flow metadata and network allow or reject disposition; application database logs will not see packets denied before arrival, which helps with forensic visibility into database connection attempts instead of delivering historical large-scale flow anomaly investigation.

B:

This alternative archives flow records for long-term cross-account audit; local instance disks are not a reliable organization-wide log store, so it addresses durable governed network activity evidence rather than the required historical large-scale flow anomaly investigation.

C:

Although this setting exposes packet-origin addressing distinct from some observation-interface values, the default field set may not capture the original addresses needed for this question; this concerns better attribution of original communicating IP endpoints, not the specified historical large-scale flow anomaly investigation.

D:

The proposed action treats absence of flow metadata as incomplete evidence rather than certainty; not all AWS-reserved traffic is recorded like an ordinary ENI flow, supporting defensible interpretation of VPC flow record gaps but leaving historical large-scale flow anomaly investigation unmet.

Question 568

A target group is marked unhealthy but the instance process is running; the engineer wants to find the discrepancy. Which action provides the required behavior?

  1. Compare configured health-check protocol, path, port, and matcher with the target's responses
  2. Analyze ALB access logs including target status and processing information
  3. Inspect CloudFront access logs or real-time logs and result types
  4. Inspect the Route 53 health check result and target or alarm condition

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The approach tests exactly the request used for health evaluation; process liveness does not guarantee the configured health route returns a passing status, directly enabling source of health-check mismatch in this situation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This approach records request and target-response context from HTTP ingress; VPC Flow Logs cannot decode response status and request URL, which helps with distinguishing load-balancer errors from target failures instead of delivering source of health-check mismatch.

C:

This alternative shows edge request handling and cache result information; direct EC2 host logs omit requests satisfied entirely at the CDN, so it addresses identifying caching and origin-fetch behavior rather than the required source of health-check mismatch.

D:

Although this setting establishes which configured health evidence caused primary DNS selection to fail, server power state is not equivalent to the configured application's health signal; this concerns root cause of unexpected DNS failover, not the specified source of health-check mismatch.

Question 569

An ALB-backed app must serve both IPv4 and IPv6 clients through one public hostname. How should this network requirement be implemented?

  1. Route IPv6 outbound traffic through an egress-only internet gateway
  2. Enable a supported dualstack load-balancer IP address type and publish the appropriate DNS
  3. Add a ::/0 route to an internet gateway and allow appropriate IPv6 network controls
  4. Associate an IPv6 CIDR block with the subnet and configure assignment settings

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

With this choice, the selected action exposes reachable IPv4 and IPv6 service addresses; an IPv4-only listener address family cannot answer IPv6 client connections, providing dual-stack client access at the load-balancer edge for the network described.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Although this setting provides stateful outbound-only IPv6 internet reachability, an ordinary internet gateway would not enforce the same outbound-only property; this concerns IPv6 egress without inbound initiation, not the specified dual-stack client access at the load-balancer edge.

C:

This approach forwards public IPv6 packets to the internet egress target; IPv4 NAT gateway routes do not create an IPv6 default path, which helps with direct IPv6 internet routing for dual-stack workloads instead of delivering dual-stack client access at the load-balancer edge.

D:

This alternative allocates a portion of the VPC IPv6 range to subnet interfaces; giving the VPC an IPv6 range does not allocate one to each subnet automatically, so it addresses routable subnet IPv6 addresses for workloads rather than the required dual-stack client access at the load-balancer edge.

Question 570

A batch job writes confidential data to S3 using public service hostnames but needs TLS in transit. What is the most suitable design or configuration?

  1. Validate certificate chain and requested hostname in the TLS client
  2. Implement service-to-service TLS or mTLS according to the threat model
  3. Deploy a managed certificate distribution and renewal workflow to the EC2 web server
  4. Require the database engine's supported TLS connection option and client verification
  5. Use HTTPS S3 requests and an appropriate bucket policy denying insecure transport

Explanation

Correct Answer

E:

With this choice, the selected action enforces secure transport for S3 API operations; server-side encryption of stored objects is a separate at-rest control, providing encrypted data movement into S3 for the network described.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed action prevents accepting an encrypted connection to an impersonating server; encryption without peer identity validation remains vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks, supporting authenticated outbound HTTPS service communication but leaving encrypted data movement into S3 unmet.

B:

This approach protects application payloads independently of private route placement; a private IP path does not by itself satisfy an explicit in-transit encryption requirement, which helps with confidentiality within private east-west service traffic instead of delivering encrypted data movement into S3.

C:

This alternative installs renewed certificates in the software that actually terminates TLS; attaching an ACM certificate to an unrelated ALB does not update Nginx on the instance, so it addresses maintained TLS identity on customer-managed application servers rather than the required encrypted data movement into S3.

D:

Although this setting protects client-to-database data in transit using the service's TLS protocol, encrypted EBS volumes do not encrypt network packets in flight; this concerns encrypted managed-database application connections, not the specified encrypted data movement into S3.

AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Practice Tests