Question 550

An organization uses a virtual private gateway and seeks a simple encrypted path for a single VPC. Which AWS networking approach meets this constraint?

  1. Configure a dynamic Site-to-Site VPN with BGP-capable customer gateway
  2. Deploy AWS Site-to-Site VPN over the internet
  3. Terminate the Site-to-Site VPN on the VPC's virtual private gateway
  4. Attach Site-to-Site VPN to AWS Transit Gateway

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

With this choice, the selected action connects the customer gateway IPsec service to the VPC routing boundary; a TGW becomes more appropriate for many separately attached VPCs, providing VPC-specific managed VPN termination for the network described.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Although this setting exchanges routes dynamically over the VPN tunnel sessions, static route-only VPN connections require route changes to be maintained explicitly; this concerns adaptive route learning between branch and AWS, not the specified VPC-specific managed VPN termination.

B:

The proposed action creates IPsec tunnels between customer gateway and AWS VPN termination; internet-path latency and variability remain relevant to SLA planning, supporting rapid encrypted hybrid connectivity over existing internet access but leaving VPC-specific managed VPN termination unmet.

D:

This alternative uses the transit routing hub to exchange routes between VPN and selected attachments; isolation still depends on transit gateway route-table design, so it addresses centralized hybrid routing for multiple networks rather than the required VPC-specific managed VPN termination.

Question 551

A team wants to compare end-to-end connections through a managed firewall without collecting every application payload. Which option should the architect select?

  1. Monitor Site-to-Site VPN TunnelState and related metrics
  2. Examine Transit Gateway metrics such as packet drop counters
  3. Enable AWS Network Firewall logging and supported monitoring metrics
  4. Track CloudFront cache hit metrics with origin-response performance indicators
  5. Capture time-series CloudWatch metrics and scheduled active network measurements

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The approach emits traffic inspection and alert information from firewall processing; VPC Flow Logs cannot expose the complete rule context of a stateful firewall, directly enabling visibility into inspected flow decisions in this situation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This alternative reports AWS-side tunnel condition over time for alerting; an ELB target-health metric tracks application targets rather than IPsec tunnels, so it addresses evidence of VPN tunnel reliability rather than the required visibility into inspected flow decisions.

B:

Although this setting tracks traffic and drop behavior at the gateway service, DNS query logs cannot measure packet loss at a transit attachment; this concerns quantitative transit-path troubleshooting, not the specified visibility into inspected flow decisions.

D:

This approach separates edge cache behavior from origin fetch effects; a single application CPU chart cannot identify CDN cache-miss patterns, which helps with causal visibility into CDN performance instead of delivering visibility into inspected flow decisions.

E:

This alternative establishes normal performance ranges for later regression comparisons; a one-time route-table export does not measure time-varying network behavior, so it addresses baseline throughput and latency during healthy operations rather than the required visibility into inspected flow decisions.

Question 552

A managed firewall might be allowing unauthorized TLS egress but the team needs the stateful rule that matched. Which action directly resolves the stated problem?

  1. Mirror the target ENI traffic to a controlled packet collection appliance
  2. Inspect AWS Network Firewall alert and flow log entries
  3. Correlate VPC Flow Logs with CloudTrail route-change events
  4. Combine VPC Flow Logs with Reachability Analyzer and policy inspection

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

This configuration reports traffic observations and stateful policy matches for the deployed inspection; packet retransmission counters cannot reveal the matched Suricata rule, so it delivers evidence of firewall decision criteria under the stated constraints.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed action duplicates packets for deep protocol analysis without relying on app logs; VPC Flow Logs record connection metadata rather than payloads, supporting forensic packet capture for suspicious EC2 traffic but leaving evidence of firewall decision criteria unmet.

C:

This alternative links data-plane network activity to control-plane API identity; relying on only a flow log would omit the change principal, so it addresses end-to-end incident timeline of traffic and configuration rather than the required evidence of firewall decision criteria.

D:

Although this setting correlates observed rejects with a modeled AWS path and controls, ACCEPT/REJECT alone does not identify the exact rule that caused every outcome; this concerns precise isolation of a blocked network path, not the specified evidence of firewall decision criteria.

Question 553

An EC2 public web tier has a public IP but its subnet route table lacks any internet destination. Which action provides the required behavior?

  1. Place a NAT gateway in a public subnet and point worker routes to it
  2. Create an S3 gateway endpoint and associate the required VPC route tables
  3. Add an IPv4 default route to an attached internet gateway in the public subnet
  4. Create the required interface VPC endpoints with private DNS enabled where supported

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The approach provides the gateway next hop for public internet routes; public addressing and security rules are also required for the connection to succeed, directly enabling internet reachability for public-addressed EC2 instances in this situation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Although this setting performs outbound IPv4 source translation for private subnets, NAT availability and AZ placement should be accounted for in production; this concerns private-instance outbound internet connectivity, not the specified internet reachability for public-addressed EC2 instances.

B:

The proposed action adds a private route target for supported S3 prefixes; the bucket and endpoint policies still govern authorization, supporting private S3 access without an internet NAT path but leaving internet reachability for public-addressed EC2 instances unmet.

D:

This alternative provides private endpoint ENIs for selected AWS APIs; required endpoints depend on the actual SSM features and network arrangement, so it addresses private service API access from a VPC rather than the required internet reachability for public-addressed EC2 instances.

Question 554

A sudden traffic peak saturates a fleet even though an ALB has healthy listeners. What is the best next configuration decision?

  1. Scale the registered compute service using a suitable Auto Scaling policy
  2. Install and configure the AWS Load Balancer Controller for ALB Ingress
  3. Use supported AWS Load Balancer Controller Service annotations and configuration
  4. Associate the ECS service with an appropriate ALB target group

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

With this choice, the selected action adds application targets in response to capacity or demand metrics; enlarging the load balancer alone does not create new workers, providing backend capacity scaling behind the load balancer for the network described.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Although this setting reconciles Kubernetes Ingress definitions into supported AWS load-balancing resources, the relevant IAM permissions and controller installation must already exist; this concerns automated ALB integration for Kubernetes ingress, not the specified backend capacity scaling behind the load balancer.

C:

The proposed action reconciles Kubernetes Service resources into network load balancing settings; an Ingress-only ALB pattern targets HTTP routing instead, supporting managed TCP Service ingress from Kubernetes but leaving backend capacity scaling behind the load balancer unmet.

D:

This approach manages registration of service tasks as they are placed and removed; manual static IP registration would lag behind service rescheduling, which helps with lifecycle-aware targets for changing ECS tasks instead of delivering backend capacity scaling behind the load balancer.

Question 555

CloudFront temporarily caches a 503 from a custom origin after the origin recovers. The API responses are not supposed to remain stale during recovery. Which cache setting should the operator adjust for this status?

  1. Increase the default TTL for successful objects to one hour
  2. Add an origin request header that does not influence the origin response
  3. Adjust the custom error response error-caching minimum TTL for HTTP 503
  4. Enable IPv6 on the distribution to bypass already cached error responses

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

CloudFront has error-caching controls for supported status codes. A low error-caching minimum TTL for 503 reduces how long transient origin failures are served from edge caches after recovery.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The ordinary object TTL applies to cacheable successful content and does not directly set the duration of a cached 503 error response.

B:

Forwarding a new request header can alter cache behavior if deliberately included in the cache key, but it does not control how long CloudFront stores HTTP error responses.

D:

IPv6 support allows the CloudFront distribution to serve clients over an additional network protocol, but it does not purge an existing cached HTTP 503 response or change the error-caching minimum TTL.

Question 556

An organization-wide security program needs historical VPC flow metadata in a centrally governed destination, HTTP request details for ALBs, and near-real-time viewer telemetry for CloudFront. Which logging capabilities collect the requested data? Choose THREE.

  1. Use CloudFront real-time logging to an appropriate streaming destination
  2. Configure cross-account flow log delivery to a governed S3 logging destination
  3. Enable ALB access logs to an appropriately controlled S3 bucket
  4. Build a centralized analysis pipeline using S3, Athena, and appropriate partitions
  5. Apply restrictive bucket access and suitable S3 retention or Object Lock controls

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

This component delivers selected viewer-request fields with low latency to consumers; traditional access-log delivery is not a low-latency event stream, contributing timely CDN security request evidence to the combined requirement for centralized multi-account traffic retention and long-term application ingress audit data and timely CDN security request evidence.

B:

This component stores standardized network-flow metadata beyond individual workload accounts; ad hoc per-instance logging cannot provide consistent coverage, contributing centralized multi-account traffic retention to the combined requirement for centralized multi-account traffic retention and long-term application ingress audit data and timely CDN security request evidence.

C:

This component retains request-level load-balancer records beyond ephemeral target lifetimes; raw flow logs do not include full HTTP request paths, contributing long-term application ingress audit data to the combined requirement for centralized multi-account traffic retention and long-term application ingress audit data and timely CDN security request evidence.

Incorrect Answers

D:

This alternative queries stored audit and flow data at organization scale; a single CloudWatch widget does not join historical raw records by itself, so it addresses scalable investigation across multiple network log sources rather than the required centralized multi-account traffic retention and long-term application ingress audit data and timely CDN security request evidence.

E:

Although this setting protects stored audit evidence against premature or unauthorized removal, encryption at rest does not itself prohibit deletion of encrypted log objects; this concerns policy-enforced log archive immutability, not the specified centralized multi-account traffic retention and long-term application ingress audit data and timely CDN security request evidence.

Question 557

A company wants DDoS event alerts and response evidence associated with its Shield Advanced protected endpoints. Which option should the architect select?

  1. Use AWS WAF rules alongside Shield DDoS defenses
  2. Use Shield Advanced event visibility and configured notifications
  3. Use AWS Shield Standard protections built into eligible AWS infrastructure
  4. Cache eligible responses through CloudFront with suitable protections

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

This configuration tracks observed DDoS attack events for protected resources; generic application logs alone may not classify infrastructure-level DDoS events, so it delivers auditable advanced DDoS response monitoring under the stated constraints.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This alternative filters application-layer requests based on HTTP properties; pure network-layer shielding cannot express arbitrary header or URI rules, so it addresses layer-seven request mitigation in a DDoS defense strategy rather than the required auditable advanced DDoS response monitoring.

C:

The proposed action supplies baseline protection against common network and transport DDoS events; a custom WAF rule is not a general replacement for underlying network volumetric mitigation, supporting default AWS DDoS protection coverage but leaving auditable advanced DDoS response monitoring unmet.

D:

This approach distributes content delivery across the CDN edge infrastructure; forcing all requests directly to one EC2 origin retains a central bottleneck, which helps with scalable edge absorption of repeated web requests instead of delivering auditable advanced DDoS response monitoring.

Question 558

A central networking account wants consumers to use only selected shared VPC subnets instead of all its subnets. How should this network requirement be implemented?

  1. Create an AWS RAM resource share for the gateway to the intended principals
  2. Accept the RAM invitation when organization-based automatic sharing is not in effect
  3. Share only the intended subnet resources through RAM
  4. Share the specific subnets using AWS RAM
  5. Share the Resolver rule through AWS RAM and associate receiving VPCs

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

This configuration limits the network locations participant accounts can place authorized resources; broad OU or account sharing should not unintentionally expose unrelated subnets, so it delivers scoped multi-account subnet participation under the stated constraints.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed action delegates attachment availability while retaining central gateway ownership; participants remain responsible for their VPC attachments and routes, supporting cross-account TGW sharing and governance but leaving scoped multi-account subnet participation unmet.

B:

This approach approves permitted sharing outside automatically trusted organization contexts; resource ownership is not transferred by accepting a share, which helps with activated accepted cross-account resource share instead of delivering scoped multi-account subnet participation.

D:

Although this setting permits participant-owned compute resources within centrally owned subnet boundaries, participants cannot generally modify the VPC's top-level routing controls; this concerns centralized subnet ownership with decentralized workloads, not the specified scoped multi-account subnet participation.

E:

The proposed action redistributes approved forwarding rule configuration to other accounts; endpoint network access is needed in addition to sharing a rule resource, supporting reusable organization-wide DNS resolver rules but leaving scoped multi-account subnet participation unmet.

Question 559

A developer expects a Transit Gateway peering link to share routing policy automatically between Regions. Which option should the architect select?

  1. Evaluate AWS Cloud WAN core network attachments and network policies
  2. Accept the peering attachment in the receiving Region or account
  3. Add corresponding static routes in the remote TGW route table toward the peering attachment
  4. Maintain independent route-table configuration on both peered TGWs

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

This configuration applies separate regional routing decisions on each side of the peering; peering does not merge or synchronize transit route tables, so it delivers deliberate cross-Region reachability policy under the stated constraints.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This alternative supplies global segment governance beyond manually peered transit gateways; Cloud WAN migration still requires explicit attachment planning and route-domain design, so it addresses scalable centrally policy-controlled multi-Region transit rather than the required deliberate cross-Region reachability policy.

B:

Although this setting completes the cross-gateway attachment approval workflow, adding routes cannot activate an unaccepted connection; this concerns an active regional transit peer attachment, not the specified deliberate cross-Region reachability policy.

C:

The proposed action establishes the reverse inter-Region transit route; one-sided route updates do not provide bidirectional connectivity, supporting return-path routing through the regional TGW peer but leaving deliberate cross-Region reachability policy unmet.

Question 560

A security analyst wants to identify original packet addresses through a NAT-influenced network path. Which action directly resolves the stated problem?

  1. Deliver VPC Flow Logs to a protected central S3 destination with retention controls
  2. Add supported pkt-srcaddr and pkt-dstaddr fields to the Flow Logs format
  3. Use Athena over a suitable Flow Logs dataset and aggregate by IP fields
  4. Turn on VPC Flow Logs at the database ENI and retain ACCEPT/REJECT records

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

This configuration exposes packet-origin addressing distinct from some observation-interface values; the default field set may not capture the original addresses needed for this question, so it delivers better attribution of original communicating IP endpoints under the stated constraints.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed action archives flow records for long-term cross-account audit; local instance disks are not a reliable organization-wide log store, supporting durable governed network activity evidence but leaving better attribution of original communicating IP endpoints unmet.

C:

This alternative supports SQL analysis of archived network records; CloudTrail does not provide per-connection byte counts for data-plane network flows, so it addresses historical large-scale flow anomaly investigation rather than the required better attribution of original communicating IP endpoints.

D:

Although this setting records packet-flow metadata and network allow or reject disposition, application database logs will not see packets denied before arrival; this concerns forensic visibility into database connection attempts, not the specified better attribution of original communicating IP endpoints.

AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Practice Tests