Question 570

A batch job writes confidential data to S3 using public service hostnames but needs TLS in transit. What is the most suitable design or configuration?

  1. Validate certificate chain and requested hostname in the TLS client
  2. Implement service-to-service TLS or mTLS according to the threat model
  3. Deploy a managed certificate distribution and renewal workflow to the EC2 web server
  4. Require the database engine's supported TLS connection option and client verification
  5. Use HTTPS S3 requests and an appropriate bucket policy denying insecure transport

Explanation

Correct Answer

E:

With this choice, the selected action enforces secure transport for S3 API operations; server-side encryption of stored objects is a separate at-rest control, providing encrypted data movement into S3 for the network described.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed action prevents accepting an encrypted connection to an impersonating server; encryption without peer identity validation remains vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks, supporting authenticated outbound HTTPS service communication but leaving encrypted data movement into S3 unmet.

B:

This approach protects application payloads independently of private route placement; a private IP path does not by itself satisfy an explicit in-transit encryption requirement, which helps with confidentiality within private east-west service traffic instead of delivering encrypted data movement into S3.

C:

This alternative installs renewed certificates in the software that actually terminates TLS; attaching an ACM certificate to an unrelated ALB does not update Nginx on the instance, so it addresses maintained TLS identity on customer-managed application servers rather than the required encrypted data movement into S3.

D:

Although this setting protects client-to-database data in transit using the service's TLS protocol, encrypted EBS volumes do not encrypt network packets in flight; this concerns encrypted managed-database application connections, not the specified encrypted data movement into S3.

Question 571

An operations team needs an objective resilience test for backup VPN rather than trusting its configured status. Which AWS networking approach meets this constraint?

  1. Simulate primary Direct Connect failure and observe BGP route convergence
  2. Enable and validate VPN ECMP with appropriate dynamic routes on the TGW
  3. Review longest-prefix selection before applying BGP preference changes
  4. Deploy Site-to-Site VPN as a failover path and adjust routing priorities

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The approach verifies that the alternate tunnel carries real traffic when the preferred path disappears; an idle VPN status page alone is not evidence of end-to-end recovery, directly enabling tested hybrid link failover in this situation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Although this setting allows eligible equivalent VPN routes to share flows using transit gateway ECMP, ECMP requires compatible dynamic routing and does not make the internet transport deterministic; this concerns supported multipath use of VPN tunnels, not the specified tested hybrid link failover.

C:

The proposed action recognizes that more-specific routing matches can override broad path preference; comparing AS_PATH for different-length prefixes does not override destination longest-match logic, supporting predictable forwarding with mixed BGP prefix lengths but leaving tested hybrid link failover unmet.

D:

This approach retains an alternate IPsec path when the primary private circuit becomes unavailable; both primary and backup must advertise compatible destinations with sensible preference, which helps with backup hybrid routing over an independent transport instead of delivering tested hybrid link failover.

Question 572

A network design uses a tiny subnet for thousands of ephemeral task endpoints and routinely fails placements. Which solution best addresses these network requirements?

  1. Choose subnet CIDR sizes based on maximum concurrent interface consumption
  2. Add a compatible secondary VPC IPv4 CIDR and create new subnets
  3. Use Amazon VPC IP Address Manager pools and allocations
  4. Add enough subnet IP capacity in each failover AZ

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

With this choice, the selected action reserves usable IP capacity for expected high-water demand; the reserved IPv4 addresses must be excluded when calculating usable capacity, providing sufficient address pool for burst scaling for the network described.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This approach expands IP ranges available to the same VPC; existing subnet CIDRs cannot be resized in place by simply associating new space, which helps with growth without immediate full VPC replacement instead of delivering sufficient address pool for burst scaling.

C:

This alternative tracks and governs CIDR space across VPCs and accounts; ad hoc spreadsheet assignments alone do not enforce allocations through AWS provisioning, so it addresses controlled organization-scale address allocation rather than the required sufficient address pool for burst scaling.

D:

Although this setting reserves launch and endpoint addresses for zonal recovery events, aggregate VPC-wide free addresses are not enough if the target AZ subnet is depleted; this concerns survivable scale-out during AZ failure, not the specified sufficient address pool for burst scaling.

Question 573

A product site serves versioned static downloads worldwide and sees consistently low cache-hit ratio because cookies vary unnecessarily. Which change is the most appropriate?

  1. Reduce needless cache-key dimensions in the CloudFront cache policy
  2. Set suitable cache TTL controls consistent with origin Cache-Control headers
  3. Reduce applicable DNS TTLs before planned changes and consider stable anycast ingress where required
  4. Use AWS Global Accelerator for supported regional application endpoints
  5. Use Route 53 latency-based records among regional endpoints

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The approach shares equivalent cached responses across more viewer requests; necessary content-variation dimensions must remain in the key to prevent incorrect responses, directly enabling improved CDN cache efficiency in this situation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The proposed action permits safe edge reuse of static responses for a defined period; caching private personalized responses by extending TTL would be unsafe, supporting fewer unnecessary origin fetches but leaving improved CDN cache efficiency unmet.

C:

This approach limits the duration of stale DNS answers during endpoint migrations; lowering a TTL after clients already cache a larger value cannot retroactively expire those caches, which helps with managed DNS cutover convergence instead of delivering improved CDN cache efficiency.

D:

This alternative routes traffic into the AWS backbone through anycast edge addresses; caching with CloudFront is a different optimization for eligible HTTP objects, so it addresses global dynamic-traffic ingress optimization rather than the required improved CDN cache efficiency.

E:

Although this setting bases DNS selection on AWS regional latency observations, DNS caching and resolver placement affect what end users observe; this concerns resolver-directed traffic toward lower-latency Regions, not the specified improved CDN cache efficiency.

Question 574

An application team needs to capture both inbound and outbound packets from a suspected compromised EC2 interface. Which solution best addresses these network requirements?

  1. Combine Traffic Mirroring for packet inspection with CloudTrail for control-plane audit
  2. Configure bidirectional Traffic Mirroring filters for the relevant session
  3. Configure Traffic Mirroring filters for relevant sources and destinations
  4. Verify mirror target reachability, session settings, and supported source interface

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

With this choice, the selected action controls which traffic directions are forwarded to the mirror target; an ingress-only filter misses responses originating from the workload, providing complete request and response packet evidence for the network described.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This alternative separates network packet observations from API-event provenance; neither source alone records both packet bytes and who changed infrastructure, so it addresses correlated data-plane and control-plane security investigations rather than the required complete request and response packet evidence.

C:

The proposed action limits mirrored packets according to matching traffic conditions; mirroring every packet increases sensor load and processing expense, supporting selective traffic capture for targeted investigation but leaving complete request and response packet evidence unmet.

D:

This approach confirms that VXLAN-encapsulated mirrored traffic can reach the collector; a correctly configured source does not help if the target cannot receive encapsulated packets, which helps with functioning packet mirror delivery instead of delivering complete request and response packet evidence.

Question 575

A cacheable product image has a query-string variant that changes its bytes, while the origin requires a troubleshooting header that should not distinguish cached copies. Which CloudFront policy changes provide both behaviors? Choose TWO.

  1. Forward the header using a CloudFront origin request policy without including it in the cache key
  2. Create a CloudFront invalidation for the affected object paths
  3. Add the rendition parameter to the CloudFront cache policy's cache key
  4. Use a CloudFront cache policy that disables caching for the API behavior
  5. Create a CloudFront origin group with primary and secondary origins

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

This component forwards selected request values to the origin independently of cache variation; forwarding values as part of the cache key would reduce cache hit ratio, contributing header forwarding without needless cache fragmentation to the combined requirement for correct caching of variant-specific responses and header forwarding without needless cache fragmentation.

C:

This component controls which request parameters distinguish cached objects at the edge; the origin may receive a parameter without the edge varying the cache entry unless it is in the cache key, contributing correct caching of variant-specific responses to the combined requirement for correct caching of variant-specific responses and header forwarding without needless cache fragmentation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This alternative marks matching cached objects for removal so subsequent requests retrieve updated content; versioned URLs can avoid invalidations for routine releases but do not invalidate the current path, so it addresses urgent cache eviction before natural expiration rather than the required correct caching of variant-specific responses and header forwarding without needless cache fragmentation.

D:

The proposed action bypasses edge object reuse while retaining CDN HTTPS delivery and origin connectivity; request forwarding alone does not ensure that sensitive response bodies are not cached, supporting per-request dynamic responses without shared cached state but leaving correct caching of variant-specific responses and header forwarding without needless cache fragmentation unmet.

E:

This approach invokes configured origin failover when eligible methods encounter selected errors; origin failover cannot be assumed to retry unsafe write operations such as POST, which helps with edge-origin failover for supported HTTP methods instead of delivering correct caching of variant-specific responses and header forwarding without needless cache fragmentation.

Question 576

An application loses network access after route-table replacement despite security groups being unchanged. Which action provides the required behavior?

  1. Plan nonoverlapping secondary VPC CIDR space and new workload subnets
  2. Analyze overlap restrictions and isolate or translate the affected routing domains
  3. Check the more-specific route entry that wins longest-prefix matching
  4. Compare subnet route-table associations before and after the change

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The approach validates that the actual subnet consults the expected route table; a correct route in an unassociated table has no effect on the workload, directly enabling accurate identification of routing changes during maintenance in this situation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed action increases available subnet address pools within the VPC; expanding EC2 instance types does not replenish exhausted private addresses, supporting sustainable IP address allocation for expanding workloads but leaving accurate identification of routing changes during maintenance unmet.

B:

This approach prevents ambiguous routes from colliding in the same transit lookup context; a health check cannot reveal which identical prefix should receive a packet, which helps with stable routing across overlapping address spaces instead of delivering accurate identification of routing changes during maintenance.

C:

This alternative follows IPv4 routing selection using the most specific matching destination; a broad /16 target does not win over an existing matching /24 route, so it addresses explanation of unexpected next-hop selection rather than the required accurate identification of routing changes during maintenance.

Question 577

A legacy TCP application's backend must inspect the original client identity even when an NLB's IP target group does not preserve that IP. Which change is the most appropriate?

  1. Enable cross-zone load balancing after evaluating costs and requirements
  2. Enable Proxy Protocol v2 and configure the application to parse its header
  3. Create an NLB TLS listener with the appropriate certificate
  4. Allocate Elastic IP addresses to an internet-facing Network Load Balancer where supported

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

With this choice, the selected action conveys source-connection metadata to compatible targets before the application payload; this requires target support and must account for health-check connections, providing delivery of original client metadata to backend software for the network described.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Although this setting permits load-balancer nodes to distribute requests to healthy targets in other enabled AZs, availability-zone affinity and possible data processing charges should be examined; this concerns cross-zone target utilization, not the specified delivery of original client metadata to backend software.

C:

This approach performs TLS termination at the network load balancer before forwarding to its target group; a raw TCP listener would normally pass encrypted bytes to the targets, which helps with managed transport-layer TLS offload instead of delivering delivery of original client metadata to backend software.

D:

This alternative provides stable public IP addressing for NLB zonal nodes; an ALB DNS name can change node IP addresses and is not configured with Elastic IPs, so it addresses zonal fixed-address TCP ingress rather than the required delivery of original client metadata to backend software.

Question 578

A SaaS vendor is publishing a private TCP service to customer VPCs but must also individually approve consuming accounts. Which provider-side PrivateLink configurations are necessary? Choose TWO.

  1. Configure verified private DNS for the service and enable the consumer endpoint setting
  2. Establish a VPC peering connection instead of publishing an endpoint service
  3. Restrict allowed service principals and require endpoint connection acceptance
  4. Create a PrivateLink endpoint service backed by an NLB
  5. Modify the interface endpoint security group to allow the client connections

Explanation

Correct Answers

C:

This component controls who can request and receive a functioning endpoint-service connection; network routing alone cannot enforce the service provider's attachment approval workflow, contributing provider-approved PrivateLink access to the combined requirement for narrow cross-VPC application access and provider-approved PrivateLink access.

D:

This component exposes the selected application privately through interface endpoints; consumer endpoints require permitted service principals or acceptance according to policy, contributing narrow cross-VPC application access to the combined requirement for narrow cross-VPC application access and provider-approved PrivateLink access.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This alternative maps the published service DNS name to endpoint IPs when the VPC resolver is used; the provider must verify domain ownership before the custom private DNS name is active, so it addresses transparent private service hostname resolution rather than the required narrow cross-VPC application access and provider-approved PrivateLink access.

B:

Although this setting creates direct private routing between two VPC address spaces rather than publishing one TCP service, VPC peering cannot join networks with overlapping address ranges; this concerns broad bidirectional VPC routing for nonoverlapping networks, not the specified narrow cross-VPC application access and provider-approved PrivateLink access.

E:

This alternative permits traffic to reach the private endpoint interface addresses; an endpoint can be active while its ENI security groups reject packets, so it addresses security-group-authorized PrivateLink client access rather than the required narrow cross-VPC application access and provider-approved PrivateLink access.

Question 579

A shared Transit Gateway spans separate AWS accounts and only approved participants may attach VPCs. Which option should the architect select?

  1. Associate attachment groups with distinct Transit Gateway route tables and control propagated routes
  2. Add an appropriately scoped blackhole route to the transit gateway table
  3. Check VPC subnet route tables for symmetric transit paths
  4. Share the Transit Gateway using AWS RAM with scoped principals

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The approach authorizes other accounts to create attachments to a centrally owned gateway; RAM sharing alone does not install working subnet or gateway routes, directly enabling controlled multi-account transit attachment access in this situation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This approach determines destination reachability independently for attachments entering each routing domain; attachments can each have one associated table and propagate to multiple tables, which helps with segmented transit routing across environments instead of delivering controlled multi-account transit attachment access.

B:

This alternative drops packets whose destination matches the blackhole entry; security groups operate on ENIs and do not implement gateway blackhole routes, so it addresses explicit denied transit route at gateway level rather than the required controlled multi-account transit attachment access.

C:

Although this setting directs ingress and return traffic along compatible stateful network paths, a correct TGW route cannot compensate for a missing VPC subnet return route; this concerns consistent bidirectional transit routing, not the specified controlled multi-account transit attachment access.

Question 580

A VPN with a static-route customer appliance has no BGP neighbor and new on-premises prefixes cannot be reached. How should this network requirement be implemented?

  1. Add the correct static routes to the Site-to-Site VPN configuration and associated route tables
  2. Update customer routing advertisements and security policies for the new AWS prefixes
  3. Remove or filter the obsolete BGP announcement on the customer router
  4. Change the workload subnet route to send the customer CIDRs to the transit gateway

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

This configuration lists reachability explicitly when dynamic routing is not used; dynamic BGP route learning would require a compatible customer gateway and VPN configuration, so it delivers static hybrid prefix coverage under the stated constraints.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This approach aligns hybrid routing tables with the changed workload address plan; changing only AWS-side routes leaves on-premises devices unaware of the migration, which helps with end-to-end reachability after VPC renumbering instead of delivering static hybrid prefix coverage.

C:

This alternative prevents AWS from learning a route to a nonexistent destination; VPC security groups do not delete advertisements from the external routing control plane, so it addresses withdrawal of invalid customer routes rather than the required static hybrid prefix coverage.

D:

Although this setting makes return packets follow the intended private hybrid route, NAT internet egress cannot substitute for a routable customer network attachment; this concerns correct workload-side return path to on premises, not the specified static hybrid prefix coverage.

AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Practice Tests