Question 750
A service VPC attachment is connected but its CIDR is missing from the route table used by consumers. Which option should the architect select?
- Associate attachment groups with distinct Transit Gateway route tables and control propagated routes
- Enable the attachment's route propagation into the consumer transit route table
- Share the Transit Gateway using AWS RAM with scoped principals
- Add an appropriately scoped blackhole route to the transit gateway table
- Check VPC subnet route tables for symmetric transit paths
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:With this choice, the selected action installs eligible attached-network routes into the selected gateway table; attachment creation does not guarantee propagation into every route table, providing learned CIDR reachability for transit consumers for the network described.
Incorrect Answers
A:This alternative determines destination reachability independently for attachments entering each routing domain; attachments can each have one associated table and propagate to multiple tables, so it addresses segmented transit routing across environments rather than the required learned CIDR reachability for transit consumers.
C:The proposed action authorizes other accounts to create attachments to a centrally owned gateway; RAM sharing alone does not install working subnet or gateway routes, supporting controlled multi-account transit attachment access but leaving learned CIDR reachability for transit consumers unmet.
D:This approach drops packets whose destination matches the blackhole entry; security groups operate on ENIs and do not implement gateway blackhole routes, which helps with explicit denied transit route at gateway level instead of delivering learned CIDR reachability for transit consumers.
E:This alternative directs ingress and return traffic along compatible stateful network paths; a correct TGW route cannot compensate for a missing VPC subnet return route, so it addresses consistent bidirectional transit routing rather than the required learned CIDR reachability for transit consumers.
Question 751
A peered VPC connection is active and both route tables exist, but an EC2 target refuses TCP sessions. Which change is the most appropriate?
- Verify the provider's private DNS verification and consumer endpoint DNS settings
- Check enabled service AZs and the consumer endpoint's selected subnets
- Inspect source and destination security groups and NACL rules
- Reassess the address plan or migrate the service path to a suitable PrivateLink/NAT pattern
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:This configuration distinguishes network authorization from established peering route topology; peer activation and route correctness do not override security-group denial, so it delivers permitted instance-level traffic over VPC peering under the stated constraints.
Incorrect Answers
A:This approach checks how a PrivateLink service name maps to local endpoint ENIs; generic public Route 53 records do not necessarily control private endpoint DNS overrides, which helps with correct private DNS mapping after provider changes instead of delivering permitted instance-level traffic over VPC peering.
B:This alternative aligns endpoint-service availability with consumer zone placement; creating a second public DNS alias does not provision a missing endpoint subnet ENI, so it addresses zone-appropriate PrivateLink service access rather than the required permitted instance-level traffic over VPC peering.
D:The proposed action avoids relying on unsupported overlap in a peering topology; route entries cannot disambiguate identical VPC CIDR destinations, supporting resilient connectivity after address conflict changes but leaving permitted instance-level traffic over VPC peering unmet.
Question 752
An internet-facing ALB must present a valid public HTTPS certificate that rotates without manual private-key installation on EC2 targets. Which action provides the required behavior?
- Configure ALB mutual TLS with an appropriate trust store
- Request and attach an AWS Certificate Manager public certificate to the HTTPS listener
- Use an eligible ACM certificate in us-east-1 for the CloudFront viewer TLS configuration
- Rely on imported third-party certificates in ACM to renew automatically without a replacement process
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:This configuration manages supported public certificates for integrated TLS termination; backend services may still need their own TLS settings if end-to-end encryption is required, so it delivers managed server identity for ALB client TLS under the stated constraints.
Incorrect Answers
A:The proposed action authenticates client certificate chains in addition to server-side TLS; a standard HTTPS listener without mTLS does not check a client's certificate identity, supporting authenticated two-way TLS at application ingress but leaving managed server identity for ALB client TLS unmet.
C:This alternative meets CloudFront's certificate-region requirement for custom HTTPS domain names; an otherwise valid certificate in another Region may not be selectable for this distribution, so it addresses valid CDN viewer certificate configuration rather than the required managed server identity for ALB client TLS.
D:Although this setting stores imported third-party certificates for supported service integrations but does not issue or renew them, ACM-managed renewal applies to eligible ACM-issued certificates, not imported certificate material; this concerns separately managed imported certificate lifecycle, not the specified managed server identity for ALB client TLS.
Question 753
A regional service spreads its capacity into two AZs but one AZ subnet has no spare addresses during failover. Which change is the most appropriate?
- Choose subnet CIDR sizes based on maximum concurrent interface consumption
- Add enough subnet IP capacity in each failover AZ
- Use Amazon VPC IP Address Manager pools and allocations
- Allocate additional appropriately routed subnets with sufficient free IP addresses
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:With this choice, the selected action reserves launch and endpoint addresses for zonal recovery events; aggregate VPC-wide free addresses are not enough if the target AZ subnet is depleted, providing survivable scale-out during AZ failure for the network described.
Incorrect Answers
A:Although this setting reserves usable IP capacity for expected high-water demand, the reserved IPv4 addresses must be excluded when calculating usable capacity; this concerns sufficient address pool for burst scaling, not the specified survivable scale-out during AZ failure.
C:This approach tracks and governs CIDR space across VPCs and accounts; ad hoc spreadsheet assignments alone do not enforce allocations through AWS provisioning, which helps with controlled organization-scale address allocation instead of delivering survivable scale-out during AZ failure.
D:This alternative expands available VPC subnet address capacity for new task ENIs; raising the task count cannot allocate addresses from an exhausted subnet, so it addresses IP headroom for container autoscaling rather than the required survivable scale-out during AZ failure.
Question 754
Two Direct Connect circuits advertise the same prefixes and both BGP paths are valid. The customer wants on-premises routers to prefer traffic through circuit A for AWS-destined outbound traffic without removing circuit B. Which side normally controls this outbound choice?
- Apply an appropriate BGP local-preference policy on the customer's routers to prefer circuit A while retaining the secondary path
- Set lower ALB target weights on AWS workloads attached to circuit B
- Increase the DNS TTL on all private Route 53 zones reached through circuit A
- Replace BGP with static routes on the AWS Direct Connect virtual interfaces
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:BGP local preference influences path selection within the customer's autonomous system for traffic exiting toward AWS. Keeping the backup advertisement valid allows the alternate circuit to be selected if the preferred route is withdrawn.
Incorrect Answers
B:Load-balancer target weighting concerns application target selection after packets have reached a service. It does not tell the customer's BGP routers which Direct Connect path to use.
C:TTL affects how long name responses may be cached, not BGP next-hop preference for a destination network. Both circuits could still advertise the same network prefix.
D:Direct Connect VIF routing uses BGP for exchanging reachability. Removing dynamic routing is not the supported way to express the customer's preferred exit path and preserve failover.
Question 755
An operations group needs to model a blocked AWS network path, capture actual EC2 packets, and alert on Direct Connect state changes. Which tools or settings collectively provide these distinct capabilities? Choose THREE.
- Run VPC Reachability Analyzer between the selected endpoints
- Use AWS Network Manager network topology and monitoring features
- Use VPC Traffic Mirroring to a compatible collector
- Create a CloudWatch alarm on the relevant Direct Connect metric
- Enable the appropriate load balancer access logs
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:This component reasons over supported network configuration to explain a path or blocking component; it does not generate live probe packets or test application response times, contributing configuration-based network path diagnosis to the combined requirement for configuration-based network path diagnosis and packet-level traffic inspection and automated connectivity-state alarms.
C:This component copies supported ENI network packets toward inspection or capture targets; flow logs contain metadata and not the packet bytes needed for protocol analysis, contributing packet-level traffic inspection to the combined requirement for configuration-based network path diagnosis and packet-level traffic inspection and automated connectivity-state alarms.
D:This component evaluates service metrics against alerting conditions; CloudTrail management logs record API events rather than continuous circuit status metrics, contributing automated connectivity-state alarms to the combined requirement for configuration-based network path diagnosis and packet-level traffic inspection and automated connectivity-state alarms.
Incorrect Answers
B:This approach represents registered global network resources and their relationships; its topology view is not the same as a packet capture, which helps with aggregated WAN and TGW topology awareness instead of delivering configuration-based network path diagnosis and packet-level traffic inspection and automated connectivity-state alarms.
E:The proposed action emits request-level records with load-balancer fields for analysis; a network flow log cannot show HTTP URLs or status codes from the application layer, supporting detailed application ingress request evidence but leaving configuration-based network path diagnosis and packet-level traffic inspection and automated connectivity-state alarms unmet.
Question 756
An enterprise manages VPC address space centrally with Amazon VPC IP Address Manager. A new account should receive a /20 CIDR from an approved private IPv4 pool, with allocations tracked to prevent overlap. Which action fits?
- Allocate the VPC CIDR from a shared VPC IPAM pool with the correct provisioning and allocation rules
- Choose an arbitrary /20 on the VPC creation page without requesting an IPAM allocation
- Create an S3 gateway endpoint and assign its policy the address block
- Enable Route 53 geoproximity routing for the /20 address space
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:IPAM tracks the pool hierarchy and CIDR allocations, allowing governed assignment of address ranges to accounts and VPCs. Allocating from the intended shared pool prevents ad hoc choices from undermining address-space planning.
Incorrect Answers
B:An arbitrary administrator-selected CIDR is not governed by the central IPAM allocation process and may overlap another approved allocation. It fails the tracking and policy requirement.
C:Gateway endpoint policies control service access; they do not allocate VPC CIDR ranges or reserve address space across organization accounts.
D:Geoproximity routing influences DNS answer selection and does not maintain an authoritative registry of private IPv4 CIDR allocations. It cannot prevent overlapping VPC ranges.
Question 757
A load balancer has a listener rule that forwards /api/* to a target group, but requests to /api/v2/health need a fixed HTTP 200 reply even when no targets are registered. Which listener rule setup provides this behavior?
- Enable NLB source-IP preservation on the API target group
- Increase the /api/* target group's deregistration delay
- Use a Route 53 CNAME record for /api/v2/health
- Create a higher-priority path rule for /api/v2/health with a fixed-response action returning HTTP 200
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Application Load Balancer evaluates listener rules in priority order. A more specific fixed-response rule evaluated first can reply from the listener itself without forwarding the health URL to the target group.
Incorrect Answers
A:Source-IP preservation concerns network attribution to targets; it does not create an ALB path-specific fixed response. It would also require the request to reach a target.
B:Deregistration delay manages in-flight connections to removed targets, not the response for a special listener path. No backend target needs to serve this health URL.
C:DNS records describe hostnames, not HTTP URL paths. A CNAME cannot return a fixed HTTP status code from an ALB listener rule.
Question 758
A global entertainment company distributes popular game patches over HTTPS but also needs two stable public IP addresses for latency-sensitive TCP matchmaking with regional failover. Which AWS services meet these separate traffic requirements? Choose TWO.
- Deploy AWS Global Accelerator with regional endpoints
- Configure Route 53 geolocation routing for the public records
- Configure an Application Load Balancer with path-based rules
- Publish the interface through Amazon API Gateway
- Add the rendition parameter to the CloudFront cache policy's cache key
- Put Amazon CloudFront in front of the origin with cacheable behaviors
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:This component advertises static anycast IP addresses and routes supported traffic through the AWS global network; DNS caching at client networks will not delay a shift away from an unhealthy accelerator endpoint, contributing stable ingress IPs and rapid regional routing to the combined requirement for edge caching that lowers origin load and stable ingress IPs and rapid regional routing.
F:This component caches eligible HTTP objects near viewers and fetches the origin mainly on misses or revalidation; a cache policy can exclude unnecessary cookies and query strings from the cache key, contributing edge caching that lowers origin load to the combined requirement for edge caching that lowers origin load and stable ingress IPs and rapid regional routing.
Incorrect Answers
B:This alternative chooses a DNS response using the location of a query's source resolver or supported EDNS client-subnet information; a default geolocation record should handle requests whose location cannot be matched, so it addresses continent-specific DNS answer selection rather than the required edge caching that lowers origin load and stable ingress IPs and rapid regional routing.
C:Although this setting evaluates HTTP request attributes at layer 7 and forwards matching requests to distinct target groups, listener priorities decide which matching rule takes precedence; this concerns path-specific application traffic steering, not the specified edge caching that lowers origin load and stable ingress IPs and rapid regional routing.
D:The proposed action applies API request processing, authorization and usage controls before integrating with a backend; gateway stages and integration settings govern deployment independently of edge caching, supporting managed REST API front-door controls but leaving edge caching that lowers origin load and stable ingress IPs and rapid regional routing unmet.
E:This approach controls which request parameters distinguish cached objects at the edge; the origin may receive a parameter without the edge varying the cache entry unless it is in the cache key, which helps with correct caching of variant-specific responses instead of delivering edge caching that lowers origin load and stable ingress IPs and rapid regional routing.
Question 759
A branch firewall is configured for IKEv1-only but policy requires modern IKEv2 negotiation. What is the best next configuration decision?
- Configure compatible IKEv2 on both VPN peers
- Rotate IPsec tunnel credentials under a coordinated, redundant tunnel procedure
- Configure AWS Site-to-Site VPN with supported IPsec settings
- Manage strong VPN pre-shared keys and secure tunnel settings for customer gateways
- Deploy an appropriate VPN over Direct Connect architecture where supported
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:With this choice, the selected action establishes an approved newer IKE negotiation protocol for IPsec; a matching route prefix cannot overcome an IKE version mismatch, providing policy-compliant VPN control-plane cryptography for the network described.
Incorrect Answers
B:This approach changes the authentication secret while preserving a managed cutover path; abrupt unsynchronized changes may take down both tunnels at once, which helps with controlled IPsec key lifecycle management instead of delivering policy-compliant VPN control-plane cryptography.
C:This alternative encrypts and authenticates packets across the managed site-to-site tunnel; a Direct Connect private circuit alone is not an IPsec encryption tunnel, so it addresses confidentiality of hybrid traffic over untrusted internet paths rather than the required policy-compliant VPN control-plane cryptography.
D:Although this setting authenticates the negotiating IPsec peer using agreed credentials, BGP next-hop attributes are not an IPsec peer authentication mechanism; this concerns trustworthy site-to-site tunnel establishment, not the specified policy-compliant VPN control-plane cryptography.
E:The proposed action carries IPsec-protected sessions on top of the dedicated network connectivity; private routing and traffic confidentiality are separate properties, supporting encryption in addition to private hybrid transport but leaving policy-compliant VPN control-plane cryptography unmet.
Question 760
A product team wants independently routed development spaces but can still choose fresh networks. Which option should the architect select?
- Associate a secondary IPv4 CIDR block with the VPC
- Use PrivateLink to expose the specific service without merging full VPC routes
- Separate the attachments into route tables or redesign the address plan
- Allocate nonoverlapping RFC1918 CIDRs during VPC address planning
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:The approach prevents ambiguous network reachability when future routing interconnects VPCs; retrospective NAT becomes avoidable when address allocation is governed early, directly enabling durable private address uniqueness between networks in this situation.
Incorrect Answers
A:Although this setting adds an additional valid VPC address range for subnet allocation, CIDR association alone does not create subnets or migrate existing interfaces; this concerns address-pool expansion without replacing the original range, not the specified durable private address uniqueness between networks.
B:The proposed action provides endpoint-based application reachability without requiring nonoverlapping peer CIDRs; VPC peering disallows overlapping CIDR blocks, supporting application access between overlapping address spaces but leaving durable private address uniqueness between networks unmet.
C:This approach avoids installing conflicting attachment reachability into one shared routing context; a broad route table cannot infer which identical destination CIDR is intended, which helps with unambiguous routing for overlapping VPC blocks instead of delivering durable private address uniqueness between networks.