Question 720

A customer uses Direct Connect for deterministic performance but requires an encrypted overlay to AWS. What should the network specialist configure?

  1. Deploy an appropriate VPN over Direct Connect architecture where supported
  2. Configure compatible IKEv2 on both VPN peers
  3. Rotate IPsec tunnel credentials under a coordinated, redundant tunnel procedure
  4. Manage strong VPN pre-shared keys and secure tunnel settings for customer gateways

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

This configuration carries IPsec-protected sessions on top of the dedicated network connectivity; private routing and traffic confidentiality are separate properties, so it delivers encryption in addition to private hybrid transport under the stated constraints.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The proposed action establishes an approved newer IKE negotiation protocol for IPsec; a matching route prefix cannot overcome an IKE version mismatch, supporting policy-compliant VPN control-plane cryptography but leaving encryption in addition to private hybrid transport unmet.

C:

This approach changes the authentication secret while preserving a managed cutover path; abrupt unsynchronized changes may take down both tunnels at once, which helps with controlled IPsec key lifecycle management instead of delivering encryption in addition to private hybrid transport.

D:

This alternative authenticates the negotiating IPsec peer using agreed credentials; BGP next-hop attributes are not an IPsec peer authentication mechanism, so it addresses trustworthy site-to-site tunnel establishment rather than the required encryption in addition to private hybrid transport.

Question 721

An engineer wants failover to reflect a BGP neighbor's loss rather than a periodic manual route change. What is the most suitable design or configuration?

  1. Prepend the on-premises ASN on the less-preferred BGP advertisement where applicable
  2. Use dynamic BGP reachability across the hybrid connection
  3. Advertise suitable summarized CIDR prefixes over BGP
  4. Use routing policy to prefer one BGP path while retaining a valid alternate

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The approach withdraws routes learned from peers when routing sessions fail; static next hops cannot infer the same route withdrawal from a BGP session loss, directly enabling control-plane-driven hybrid failover in this situation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This alternative lengthens the AS_PATH attribute seen by peers for route choice; AWS route priorities and local connection details can affect the complete decision, so it addresses inbound path preference toward the shorter advertised AS path rather than the required control-plane-driven hybrid failover.

C:

The proposed action aggregates adjacent networks into fewer routing announcements; summaries must not accidentally include unreachable networks or overlapping ownership, supporting scalable dynamic prefix advertising but leaving control-plane-driven hybrid failover unmet.

D:

This approach influences BGP path selection without removing the standby advertisement; simply deleting the backup route would prevent automatic rerouting, which helps with active-passive hybrid routing instead of delivering control-plane-driven hybrid failover.

Question 722

An HTTP service needs traffic for /admin/* redirected to an identity portal instead of forwarded to its normal targets. What should the network specialist configure?

  1. Place the WebSocket application behind an Application Load Balancer
  2. Create an ALB listener redirect action for the matching path
  3. Add an ALB query-string condition to a higher-priority listener rule
  4. Configure an ALB fixed-response listener action

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

This configuration responds with a configured HTTP redirect to the client; a forward action would keep traffic on backend targets instead of informing the browser to navigate, so it delivers client-visible URL redirection at layer 7 under the stated constraints.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This approach supports HTTP upgrade semantics for WebSocket connections; configure appropriate timeouts for expected idle periods rather than assuming normal short-lived requests, which helps with long-lived HTTP-upgraded application sessions instead of delivering client-visible URL redirection at layer 7.

C:

Although this setting evaluates specified HTTP query parameters for request routing, Network Load Balancer listeners cannot inspect application query parameters; this concerns parameter-driven routing within an HTTP listener, not the specified client-visible URL redirection at layer 7.

D:

The proposed action generates an HTTP status and optional response body at the load balancer; changing a DNS record does not provide an HTTP response body to the caller, supporting immediate maintenance responses without invoking targets but leaving client-visible URL redirection at layer 7 unmet.

Question 723

A packet-processing EC2 application is CPU-bound on interrupt handling under heavy small-packet traffic. Which action provides the required behavior?

  1. Profile packet rate and use suitable instance networking capabilities with ENA
  2. Enable and verify ENA support and drivers on a compatible instance
  3. Place the cluster in a cluster placement group when supported
  4. Attach multiple compatible elastic network interfaces to the EC2 instance
  5. Select supported EC2 instances with Elastic Fabric Adapter and appropriate placement

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

This configuration considers packet-per-second limits and accelerated I/O efficiency; raw advertised gigabits per second do not describe every small-packet workload limit, so it delivers higher sustainable EC2 packet-processing rate under the stated constraints.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This approach uses enhanced networking capabilities for higher packet-processing performance; increasing a subnet CIDR does not change instance network driver capability, which helps with improved EC2 packet throughput and latency instead of delivering higher sustainable EC2 packet-processing rate.

C:

This alternative co-locates eligible instances to optimize low-latency network communication; spread placement distributes instances to distinct hardware and serves a different goal, so it addresses tightly placed single-AZ compute networking rather than the required higher sustainable EC2 packet-processing rate.

D:

Although this setting presents separate interface identities, addresses and security group attachments, placement group settings do not create additional logical interfaces; this concerns multi-homed EC2 appliance connectivity, not the specified higher sustainable EC2 packet-processing rate.

E:

The proposed action supports optimized HPC communication patterns with an EFA network interface; an ordinary ENI offers baseline networking but not the EFA communication path, supporting tightly coupled cluster networking performance but leaving higher sustainable EC2 packet-processing rate unmet.

Question 724

An alert should fire when a new public IP assignment violates a workload policy. Which change is the most appropriate?

  1. Use an AWS Config managed or custom rule evaluating the relevant SG rules
  2. Use Config evaluation events with EventBridge-driven notification or remediation
  3. Deploy AWS Config conformance packs with suitable account or organization targets
  4. Treat Config findings as detective and enforce prevention separately through IAM/SCP

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

This configuration responds to detected noncompliant resource configuration; a VPC flow log event is not a direct declaration that resource configuration violates a policy, so it delivers automated handling of disallowed internet exposure under the stated constraints.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This alternative checks recorded security-group configuration for a defined compliance condition; a CloudWatch CPU alarm cannot assess IAM or security-group policy semantics, so it addresses automatic identification of risky admin port exposure rather than the required automated handling of disallowed internet exposure.

C:

The proposed action groups compliance rule checks into consistent policy baselines; an individual ad hoc query does not deploy the set of ongoing evaluations, supporting reusable multi-account network compliance assessment but leaving automated handling of disallowed internet exposure unmet.

D:

This approach reports noncompliance after changes without automatically blocking every API call; claiming a Config rule prevents all modifications would overstate its enforcement behavior, which helps with correct governance boundary between auditing and authorization instead of delivering automated handling of disallowed internet exposure.

Question 725

Network governance must distribute common WAF protections across child accounts, prohibit disabling critical monitoring APIs, and evaluate subnet policies for drift. Which governance capabilities cover these controls? Choose THREE.

  1. Deploy AWS Config rules or conformance packs for the network configuration
  2. Use AWS Firewall Manager policies with appropriate organizational scope
  3. Enable organization-wide management-event logging with protected central retention
  4. Share supported security and networking resources using AWS RAM under approved principals
  5. Apply an appropriately scoped AWS Organizations service control policy

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

This component evaluates recorded resource configurations against defined compliance conditions; Config reports compliance rather than inherently blocking a change at the API call, contributing continuous detection of noncompliant network rule changes to the combined requirement for consistent multi-account WAF deployment governance and organization-enforced restrictions on disabling controls and continuous detection of noncompliant network rule changes.

B:

This component centrally manages eligible firewall protections for organization resources; creating one web ACL in the management account does not attach it to every account's ALBs, contributing consistent multi-account WAF deployment governance to the combined requirement for consistent multi-account WAF deployment governance and organization-enforced restrictions on disabling controls and continuous detection of noncompliant network rule changes.

E:

This component establishes organization-level maximum permissions for member accounts; an SCP limits permissions but does not enable a missing logging resource by itself, contributing organization-enforced restrictions on disabling controls to the combined requirement for consistent multi-account WAF deployment governance and organization-enforced restrictions on disabling controls and continuous detection of noncompliant network rule changes.

Incorrect Answers

C:

Although this setting records who called networking control-plane APIs and when, traffic flow telemetry cannot identify the IAM principal that changed a route; this concerns attributable network infrastructure modifications, not the specified consistent multi-account WAF deployment governance and organization-enforced restrictions on disabling controls and continuous detection of noncompliant network rule changes.

D:

The proposed action distributes use of centrally owned network resources across accounts; RAM sharing is not a universal replacement for IAM resource authorization, supporting governed multi-account network resource access but leaving consistent multi-account WAF deployment governance and organization-enforced restrictions on disabling controls and continuous detection of noncompliant network rule changes unmet.

Question 726

An enterprise wants DNS queries forwarded only for exact corporate suffixes, not every arbitrary public domain. Which option should the architect select?

  1. Configure a Route 53 health check with content matching and failover routing
  2. Add the child's DS information to the parent delegation
  3. Set a domain-specific Resolver forwarding rule rather than broad catch-all forwarding
  4. Add a default record for the geolocation record set

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

This configuration dispatches only matching DNS names to designated remote resolver targets; forwarding the root domain may unnecessarily route unrelated internet lookups to corporate servers, so it delivers selective hybrid DNS forwarding scope under the stated constraints.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed action uses observed application health to decide whether primary DNS responses should be served; ordinary weighted routing is not inherently primary-secondary failover, supporting endpoint-aware authoritative DNS failover but leaving selective hybrid DNS forwarding scope unmet.

B:

This approach establishes the missing DNSSEC parent-child trust link; KMS signing configuration alone does not prove authenticity to a recursive validator, which helps with end-to-end DNSSEC validator trust instead of delivering selective hybrid DNS forwarding scope.

D:

Although this setting supplies an answer for unmatched geographic source queries, unmatched locations can otherwise have no suitable geolocation record answer; this concerns reliable geo-based DNS response completion, not the specified selective hybrid DNS forwarding scope.

Question 727

A software vendor serves private download files through CloudFront. Individual purchases must grant access to one object for a limited period without distributing permanent AWS credentials to viewers. Which mechanism matches that requirement?

  1. Issue time-limited CloudFront signed URLs using an authorized key group for the protected cache behavior
  2. Make the origin bucket public and rely on an unpredictable object filename
  3. Place a basic Route 53 alias record in front of the distribution
  4. Assign the viewer a long-lived IAM access key embedded in each download link

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A CloudFront signed URL includes a cryptographic signature and an expiry policy enforced at the edge for private content. The viewer obtains temporary access to a designated object without receiving IAM credentials or an S3 presigned URL directly.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Guess-resistant naming is not an authorization control and a public bucket would allow access outside the intended purchase window. Edge authorization should enforce the URL's validity.

C:

DNS aliases connect a hostname to the distribution but cannot express per-purchase signatures, viewer authorization or expiration. The downloaded object would still need access controls.

D:

Distributing AWS credentials to arbitrary viewers creates unnecessary exposure and does not implement CloudFront signed-URL validation. It also fails the requirement to avoid permanent credentials.

Question 728

A compliance function should create a security group only when one with the required tags does not already exist. What is the most suitable design or configuration?

  1. Ensure CloudTrail management events are recorded and retained
  2. Implement explicit error handling and compensation in the automation workflow
  3. Make the resource automation idempotent with discovery before create operations
  4. Use AWS SDK or CLI Describe and List APIs with assumed account roles

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The approach reconciles desired configuration without repeatedly creating duplicate resources; blind create calls can generate unnecessary objects on retries, directly enabling repeatable safe network API automation in this situation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This alternative audits API activity that mutates control-plane network configurations; VPC Flow Logs capture traffic metadata rather than who invoked the route API, so it addresses attribution of networking configuration changes rather than the required repeatable safe network API automation.

B:

Although this setting prevents incomplete sequences from continuing silently across environments, success messages alone cannot guarantee all dependent resources were updated; this concerns fail-safe orchestration of network API changes, not the specified repeatable safe network API automation.

D:

This approach queries networking resource metadata through authorized API calls; console screenshots are not structured or repeatable inventory feeds, which helps with automated cross-account network inventory instead of delivering repeatable safe network API automation.

Question 729

A new VPC uses overlapping 10.44.0.0/16 addresses and a peering creation attempt is rejected. Which option should the architect select?

  1. Add the peer CIDR route to the peering connection in relevant VPC subnet route tables
  2. Renumber one VPC or adopt a suitable endpoint-based connectivity pattern
  3. Enable the VPC peering DNS resolution options
  4. Accept the VPC peering connection in the peer account

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The approach avoids the overlapping-CIDR restriction on VPC peering; adding more-specific routes cannot make an unsupported overlapping peering connection valid, directly enabling viable connectivity with conflicting network address plans in this situation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This approach forwards private destination packets over the peer link; the peer VPC must also have an appropriate return route, which helps with source subnet reachability through VPC peering instead of delivering viable connectivity with conflicting network address plans.

C:

Although this setting allows qualifying public hostname resolution across peered VPCs to return private addresses, this does not replace Route 53 private hosted-zone association for arbitrary private names; this concerns private DNS resolution for peered instance hostnames, not the specified viable connectivity with conflicting network address plans.

D:

The proposed action activates the permitted one-to-one peering relationship; route entries cannot use an unaccepted peering connection to pass packets, supporting approved peering connection lifecycle but leaving viable connectivity with conflicting network address plans unmet.

Question 730

A customer gateway already uses BGP and engineers need to know which AWS configuration controls the VPC's route propagation from the VGW. What should the network specialist configure?

  1. Create a VPN attachment to AWS Transit Gateway
  2. Create a Site-to-Site VPN connection using the VPC's VGW as the target
  3. Enable VGW route propagation in the relevant VPC route table
  4. Associate regional TGWs with one DX gateway using a transit VIF

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

With this choice, the selected action installs eligible propagated hybrid routes in a VPC route table; merely bringing up a BGP session is not enough when the subnet route table lacks a path, providing learned routes from a virtual private gateway for the network described.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed action terminates the managed VPN service at the shared routing hub; transit gateway route tables must grant each destination access deliberately, supporting consolidated VPN access to selected VPC attachments but leaving learned routes from a virtual private gateway unmet.

B:

This approach terminates the AWS-side VPN tunnels at the virtual private gateway; a transit gateway is a different termination pattern with broader attachment routing, which helps with VPC-local hybrid VPN termination instead of delivering learned routes from a virtual private gateway.

D:

Although this setting links multiple regional transit routing domains to the on-premises circuit, allowed prefixes and ASN constraints need attention during association; this concerns centralized hybrid routing across regional hubs, not the specified learned routes from a virtual private gateway.

AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Practice Tests