Question 650

A global HTTP property uses CloudFront in front of an ALB. Engineers need viewer cache-result evidence and per-request target HTTP status context. Which log sources should be examined? Choose TWO.

  1. Enable appropriate NLB TLS access logging where supported
  2. Inspect CloudFront access logs or real-time logs and result types
  3. Compare configured health-check protocol, path, port, and matcher with the target's responses
  4. Inspect the Route 53 health check result and target or alarm condition
  5. Analyze ALB access logs including target status and processing information

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

This component shows edge request handling and cache result information; direct EC2 host logs omit requests satisfied entirely at the CDN, contributing identifying caching and origin-fetch behavior to the combined requirement for distinguishing load-balancer errors from target failures and identifying caching and origin-fetch behavior.

E:

This component records request and target-response context from HTTP ingress; VPC Flow Logs cannot decode response status and request URL, contributing distinguishing load-balancer errors from target failures to the combined requirement for distinguishing load-balancer errors from target failures and identifying caching and origin-fetch behavior.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This approach records connection-level TLS listener metadata for analysis; an ordinary HTTP ALB access-log schema is not the same as NLB TLS logs, which helps with NLB TLS session audit data instead of delivering distinguishing load-balancer errors from target failures and identifying caching and origin-fetch behavior.

C:

Although this setting tests exactly the request used for health evaluation, process liveness does not guarantee the configured health route returns a passing status; this concerns source of health-check mismatch, not the specified distinguishing load-balancer errors from target failures and identifying caching and origin-fetch behavior.

D:

The proposed action establishes which configured health evidence caused primary DNS selection to fail; server power state is not equivalent to the configured application's health signal, supporting root cause of unexpected DNS failover but leaving distinguishing load-balancer errors from target failures and identifying caching and origin-fetch behavior unmet.

Question 651

A security operations team needs attachment-level source and destination IP metadata, ports, packet counts, and byte counts for traffic traversing a Transit Gateway. It does not require captured packet payloads. Which telemetry source should it enable?

  1. Enable Transit Gateway Flow Logs and deliver records to an approved CloudWatch Logs or S3 destination
  2. Use VPC Traffic Mirroring on an unrelated EC2 network interface as the sole transit visibility source
  3. Enable CloudTrail management events and treat API requests as complete connection-flow records
  4. Enable Route 53 Resolver query logging and infer TCP packet counts from queried names

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Transit Gateway Flow Logs records expose supported flow metadata for traffic that traverses a transit gateway, including relevant attachment identifiers and traffic counters. Central delivery enables investigation without the cost or sensitivity of packet-payload capture.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Traffic Mirroring copies packets from specifically supported interfaces, not every flow through a transit gateway by default. An unrelated instance mirror cannot provide complete transit attachment telemetry.

C:

CloudTrail records management API calls, identities, and configuration changes; it is not a per-flow data-plane telemetry service. It cannot replace connection metadata for transit traffic.

D:

Resolver query logs describe DNS lookup activity, not the bytes or packets in later TCP and UDP sessions. The network team would miss non-DNS traffic and flow-level volume information.

Question 652

An ALB security incident requires the original HTTP request paths and client identity evidence after backend servers have rotated. Which option should the architect select?

  1. Apply restrictive bucket access and suitable S3 retention or Object Lock controls
  2. Enable ALB access logs to an appropriately controlled S3 bucket
  3. Configure cross-account flow log delivery to a governed S3 logging destination
  4. Build a centralized analysis pipeline using S3, Athena, and appropriate partitions

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The approach retains request-level load-balancer records beyond ephemeral target lifetimes; raw flow logs do not include full HTTP request paths, directly enabling long-term application ingress audit data in this situation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This alternative protects stored audit evidence against premature or unauthorized removal; encryption at rest does not itself prohibit deletion of encrypted log objects, so it addresses policy-enforced log archive immutability rather than the required long-term application ingress audit data.

C:

The proposed action stores standardized network-flow metadata beyond individual workload accounts; ad hoc per-instance logging cannot provide consistent coverage, supporting centralized multi-account traffic retention but leaving long-term application ingress audit data unmet.

D:

This approach queries stored audit and flow data at organization scale; a single CloudWatch widget does not join historical raw records by itself, which helps with scalable investigation across multiple network log sources instead of delivering long-term application ingress audit data.

Question 653

A domain owner must publish a verification token required by a SaaS vendor. What should the network specialist configure?

  1. Create a Route 53 alias A record to the load balancer
  2. Create the vendor-specified TXT record
  3. Publish an AAAA record for the IPv6 address
  4. Configure the appropriate PTR resource record under the reverse DNS namespace

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

With this choice, the selected action stores arbitrary DNS text values frequently used for verification and email security; changing NS delegation is unnecessary for a simple text token challenge, providing domain-ownership proof through DNS text for the network described.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed action returns address answers for supported AWS resources without violating apex CNAME restrictions; alias records can also track the target's changing addresses without an ordinary CNAME at the root, supporting apex-domain mapping to an AWS load balancer but leaving domain-ownership proof through DNS text unmet.

C:

This alternative encodes an IPv6 host address in authoritative DNS; an A record alone advertises IPv4 addresses and cannot supply a literal IPv6 address, so it addresses IPv6 address discovery for clients rather than the required domain-ownership proof through DNS text.

D:

Although this setting maps a reverse-address DNS name back to a host name, ordinary A records map forward from host names to IPv4 addresses instead; this concerns IP-to-name reverse DNS lookup, not the specified domain-ownership proof through DNS text.

Question 654

A new VPC is detected in a child account and must trigger a compliance network-policy evaluation. Which option should the architect select?

  1. Orchestrate an approved automation workflow with Step Functions and scoped API operations
  2. Use VPC-creation EventBridge events to invoke a Lambda policy-check workflow
  3. Schedule a serverless inventory and validation job with EventBridge Scheduler
  4. Route the matching CloudTrail event through EventBridge to a remediation target

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The approach reacts to new VPC creation events and runs focused automated network checks; a VPC-creation event filter does not detect subsequent security-group modification APIs, directly enabling event-driven VPC-creation governance in this situation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Although this setting coordinates retries, sequencing and error handling for network changes, a single manual CLI loop lacks workflow-state and recovery controls; this concerns repeatable multi-account route-management operations, not the specified event-driven VPC-creation governance.

C:

This approach invokes defined audits on a predictable timetable; an event-only trigger would miss issues that arise without a captured change event, which helps with recurring network configuration validation instead of delivering event-driven VPC-creation governance.

D:

This alternative maps audited API activity to event-driven response logic; CloudWatch metrics do not by themselves reconstruct the API change request, so it addresses near-real-time security-group change response rather than the required event-driven VPC-creation governance.

Question 655

An EC2 Auto Scaling group adds instances, but a manually managed target list leaves new nodes out of service. Which AWS networking approach meets this constraint?

  1. Attach the load balancer target group to the Auto Scaling group
  2. Register supported private IP addresses in an IP-type target group
  3. Change the target group's health-check path and success matcher
  4. Tune target-group deregistration delay and drain before terminating capacity

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The approach integrates target registration and deregistration with instance lifecycle; scaling policies alone do not update an unrelated manually maintained group, directly enabling automatic target membership as capacity changes in this situation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Although this setting allows appropriate load balancers to use reachable private IP targets beyond an instance-ID inventory, a public internet IP is not a valid substitute for private target registration in this pattern; this concerns hybrid private-address backend targets, not the specified automatic target membership as capacity changes.

C:

The proposed action sends HTTP or HTTPS readiness probes to the intended application endpoint; a TCP handshake alone cannot prove route-level application readiness, supporting application-specific health status for load balancing but leaving automatic target membership as capacity changes unmet.

D:

This approach allows load-balancer connection draining during target removal; immediately killing the instance defeats the drain interval, which helps with graceful exit for targets holding active requests instead of delivering automatic target membership as capacity changes.

Question 656

A service provider renamed its endpoint service custom DNS name and consumers still resolve an older destination. What is the most suitable design or configuration?

  1. Inspect source and destination security groups and NACL rules
  2. Verify the provider's private DNS verification and consumer endpoint DNS settings
  3. Check enabled service AZs and the consumer endpoint's selected subnets
  4. Reassess the address plan or migrate the service path to a suitable PrivateLink/NAT pattern

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

With this choice, the selected action checks how a PrivateLink service name maps to local endpoint ENIs; generic public Route 53 records do not necessarily control private endpoint DNS overrides, providing correct private DNS mapping after provider changes for the network described.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This approach distinguishes network authorization from established peering route topology; peer activation and route correctness do not override security-group denial, which helps with permitted instance-level traffic over VPC peering instead of delivering correct private DNS mapping after provider changes.

C:

Although this setting aligns endpoint-service availability with consumer zone placement, creating a second public DNS alias does not provision a missing endpoint subnet ENI; this concerns zone-appropriate PrivateLink service access, not the specified correct private DNS mapping after provider changes.

D:

The proposed action avoids relying on unsupported overlap in a peering topology; route entries cannot disambiguate identical VPC CIDR destinations, supporting resilient connectivity after address conflict changes but leaving correct private DNS mapping after provider changes unmet.

Question 657

A central compliance team wants common Network Firewall deployments for designated VPCs in participating accounts. What is the best next configuration decision?

  1. Use AWS Firewall Manager security-group policies across designated accounts
  2. Configure supported AWS Firewall Manager Network Firewall policies
  3. Review Firewall Manager policy compliance findings with read-only access
  4. Verify organization integration, policy scope, and included accounts or OUs
  5. Deploy a Firewall Manager WAF policy with scoped resources

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The approach coordinates firewall resources and policies across AWS accounts; local-only firewall rules lack organization-level orchestration, directly enabling centrally managed VPC network inspection governance in this situation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed action centrally evaluates and manages eligible security-group rule posture; a single EC2 console audit cannot cover newly created accounts consistently, supporting organization-scale detection of overly broad access but leaving centrally managed VPC network inspection governance unmet.

C:

This alternative separates assessment of centrally managed protection from remediation authority; a monitoring role need not have broad permissions to edit every rule, so it addresses oversight of firewall policy compliance rather than the required centrally managed VPC network inspection governance.

D:

Although this setting ensures governance policies apply to the intended organization structure, cloud firewall telemetry does not itself enroll new accounts in a policy; this concerns consistent firewall policy coverage after organizational changes, not the specified centrally managed VPC network inspection governance.

E:

The proposed action manages compatible web ACL protections across organization members; merely sharing a web ACL object does not attach it to eligible ALBs, supporting uniform application firewall baselines but leaving centrally managed VPC network inspection governance unmet.

Question 658

A route to a prohibited network appeared overnight and security needs the identity responsible for the change. Which change is the most appropriate?

  1. Enable CloudTrail log file integrity validation and protect the archive
  2. Configure an organization trail with central delivery and appropriate event coverage
  3. Search CloudTrail management events for the corresponding route-table API operation
  4. Inspect CloudTrail user identity and request details for the delete event

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

With this choice, the selected action records principal, time and API request metadata for supported networking changes; VPC Flow Logs show packet behavior rather than resource-modification principals, providing attribution of unauthorized network control-plane activity for the network described.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Although this setting supports detecting tampering with delivered log file digests, encryption at rest alone does not prove the historical log sequence was unchanged; this concerns integrity-verifiable network audit history, not the specified attribution of unauthorized network control-plane activity.

B:

The proposed action collects management events across included accounts under centralized governance; configuring an individual trail in a single account leaves coverage gaps, supporting organization-wide configuration change evidence but leaving attribution of unauthorized network control-plane activity unmet.

D:

This alternative identifies the credential context used for the control-plane action; packet mirror traces cannot establish IAM API identity, so it addresses accountable origin of a network policy deletion rather than the required attribution of unauthorized network control-plane activity.

Question 659

A new virtual router in an isolated subnet cannot reach the TGW GRE endpoint despite valid BGP authentication. Which AWS networking approach meets this constraint?

  1. Confirm the VPC route and security controls for the Connect underlay
  2. Configure the BGP peer ASN and inside adjacency parameters for Connect
  3. Enable compatible ECMP and advertise equivalent routes across the Connect peers
  4. Create a Transit Gateway Connect attachment and its Connect peer

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

This configuration permits GRE outer packets to traverse the parent transit connectivity; no BGP policy can build a session before the GRE underlay is reachable, so it delivers underlying IP reachability for Connect peer establishment under the stated constraints.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Although this setting exchanges supported customer route prefixes across the GRE peer, traffic can be encapsulated even while no usable BGP routes are learned; this concerns route learning over the established Connect overlay, not the specified underlying IP reachability for Connect peer establishment.

C:

The proposed action lets eligible Connect paths distribute flows according to transit gateway multipath rules; per-packet reordering should not be assumed as a balancing model, supporting scalable equal-cost SD-WAN transit but leaving underlying IP reachability for Connect peer establishment unmet.

D:

This approach establishes GRE connectivity and BGP control plane between the appliance and TGW; an ordinary VPC attachment cannot replace the Connect peer's overlay interfaces, which helps with SD-WAN GRE/BGP integration with the transit gateway instead of delivering underlying IP reachability for Connect peer establishment.

Question 660

An application account can launch its own EC2 instances into a subnet shared by a central VPC owner, but attempts to edit the subnet's route table fail. Which statement best explains the account boundary?

  1. A participant account must create a Transit Gateway before it can edit a shared subnet's route table
  2. The VPC owner manages shared subnet routing and network infrastructure, while participants manage their own permitted workload resources
  3. AWS RAM grants the participant full administrative ownership of every VPC resource in the shared subnet
  4. Each participant receives a separate independently editable copy of the same subnet route table

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

In VPC subnet sharing, the owner retains management of subnets, route tables, network ACLs, and other shared network infrastructure. A participant can manage its own supported resources, such as EC2 instances and security groups, but cannot modify the owner's routes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A Transit Gateway provides network connectivity between attachments and does not transfer control of a shared VPC's route tables. The participant's permission boundary is defined by VPC sharing, not the presence of a transit gateway.

C:

AWS RAM permits eligible participants to consume shared subnets; it does not make them co-owners of their route tables. The central account remains responsible for VPC routing decisions and subnet network controls.

D:

A shared subnet has the owner's actual subnet route-table association, not a different route table for every consuming account. Separate copies would not explain the centralized network behavior of VPC sharing.

AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Practice Tests