Question 470

A company wants to connect dozens of VPCs while retaining route-table-level isolation and shared on-prem access. Which AWS networking approach meets this constraint?

  1. Use an AWS Transit Gateway with distinct attachment routing domains
  2. Put an appropriate NLB-based endpoint-service front end before the application stack
  3. Create an interface VPC endpoint to the provider's PrivateLink service
  4. Maintain a VPC peering connection with reciprocal subnet routes
  5. Use a gateway endpoint for S3 with the correct subnet route-table associations

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

With this choice, the selected action centralizes routing and segmentation for large private network topologies; ordinary VPC peering creates independent nontransitive links, providing scalable multi-VPC and hybrid hub connectivity for the network described.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This alternative provides the supported PrivateLink provider integration for application reachability; an ALB is not directly used as the endpoint-service load balancer type in this pattern, so it addresses NLB-backed private service publication rather than the required scalable multi-VPC and hybrid hub connectivity.

C:

Although this setting supplies private endpoint ENIs for the specific service consumer, a gateway endpoint is reserved for eligible AWS service integrations, not arbitrary SaaS APIs; this concerns narrowly scoped third-party service connectivity, not the specified scalable multi-VPC and hybrid hub connectivity.

D:

The proposed action provides simple one-to-one forwarding through the AWS network; it does not automatically enable transitive routing to the rest of either account's peers, supporting minimal two-VPC private connectivity but leaving scalable multi-VPC and hybrid hub connectivity unmet.

E:

This approach creates a private route to S3 supported service prefixes; access policy and Region support still determine actual service permissions, which helps with S3 access avoiding NAT and internet paths instead of delivering scalable multi-VPC and hybrid hub connectivity.

Question 471

Instances need HTTP and HTTPS access only via an authenticated enterprise proxy and must not use direct NAT. What should the network specialist configure?

  1. Route approved egress through Transit Gateway to the centralized inspection and NAT path
  2. Point application clients to the explicit proxy and restrict direct egress routes or security rules
  3. Deploy an AZ-local NAT gateway in each zone and route private subnets accordingly
  4. Put DNS filtering and network traffic inspection at their appropriate control points

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

This configuration makes proxy policy the approved path for application web requests; a NAT gateway translates addresses but cannot enforce enterprise proxy authentication, so it delivers authenticated policy-enforced web egress under the stated constraints.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed action consolidates outbound forwarding through a governed security choke point; independent NAT gateways in spokes would bypass the central inspection path, supporting controlled internet egress from multiple VPCs but leaving authenticated policy-enforced web egress unmet.

C:

This alternative preserves zone-local IPv4 source translation and improves fault isolation; one NAT in a different zone concentrates both outage and cross-zone dependency, so it addresses resilient zonal outbound IPv4 access rather than the required authenticated policy-enforced web egress.

D:

Although this setting uses resolver domain controls and a routed firewall for separate egress risks, blocking DNS alone may be bypassed by clients using direct IP destinations or other resolvers; this concerns layered outbound destination restriction, not the specified authenticated policy-enforced web egress.

Question 472

An application wants to delegate a hostname alias to another hostname rather than copy its current IP addresses. How should this network requirement be implemented?

  1. Add a CNAME at a non-apex owner name
  2. Create a Route 53 alias A record to the load balancer
  3. Configure the appropriate PTR resource record under the reverse DNS namespace
  4. Create the vendor-specified TXT record

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

This configuration makes a DNS name an alias of a canonical host name during recursive resolution; a CNAME cannot normally coexist with other record types at the same owner name, so it delivers hostname-to-hostname aliasing for a subdomain under the stated constraints.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The proposed action returns address answers for supported AWS resources without violating apex CNAME restrictions; alias records can also track the target's changing addresses without an ordinary CNAME at the root, supporting apex-domain mapping to an AWS load balancer but leaving hostname-to-hostname aliasing for a subdomain unmet.

C:

This approach maps a reverse-address DNS name back to a host name; ordinary A records map forward from host names to IPv4 addresses instead, which helps with IP-to-name reverse DNS lookup instead of delivering hostname-to-hostname aliasing for a subdomain.

D:

This alternative stores arbitrary DNS text values frequently used for verification and email security; changing NS delegation is unnecessary for a simple text token challenge, so it addresses domain-ownership proof through DNS text rather than the required hostname-to-hostname aliasing for a subdomain.

Question 473

A private subnet must reach external package mirrors without allowing unsolicited inbound internet traffic. How should this network requirement be implemented?

  1. Add capacity in additional suitable subnets or create expanded address ranges
  2. Route IPv6 default traffic to an egress-only internet gateway
  3. Subtract the five AWS-reserved IPv4 addresses from the subnet capacity
  4. Route IPv4 internet-bound traffic through a NAT gateway in a public subnet

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

With this choice, the selected action provides source-translated outbound IPv4 access for private workloads; a route to an internet gateway alone does not make a private-addressed instance publicly reachable, providing outbound-only IPv4 internet access for private instances for the network described.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This alternative provides more allocatable IP addresses for new workload interfaces; increasing desired capacity without available addresses cannot place instances, so it addresses available subnet addressing for scale-out rather than the required outbound-only IPv4 internet access for private instances.

B:

Although this setting permits initiated outbound IPv6 flows while blocking new internet-originated flows, ordinary NAT gateways are chiefly an IPv4 translation pattern; this concerns outbound-only IPv6 connectivity, not the specified outbound-only IPv4 internet access for private instances.

C:

The proposed action accounts for network, router, DNS, reserved, and broadcast-address slots; treating every mathematical IPv4 address in the CIDR as assignable overstates capacity, supporting accurate usable private IPv4 capacity planning but leaving outbound-only IPv4 internet access for private instances unmet.

Question 474

A Direct Connect connection is intermittently unavailable, but the CloudWatch dashboard plots only network throughput. Which action provides the required behavior?

  1. Examine TargetResponseTime and target HTTP code CloudWatch metrics
  2. Compare time-aligned service metrics with CloudTrail change records
  3. Include Direct Connect ConnectionState and appropriate error counters
  4. Create a CloudWatch alarm on the relevant firewall or derived metric

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

With this choice, the selected action tracks link state independently of the amount of traffic transferred; low throughput can mean idle workloads, not necessarily a failed circuit, providing observability of hybrid physical or connection faults for the network described.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This approach distinguishes slow target processing and target-generated error rates; front-end DNS TTL values do not explain target application latency, which helps with quantitative load-balancer-to-backend performance diagnosis instead of delivering observability of hybrid physical or connection faults.

B:

This alternative combines operational signal timing with configuration mutation history; checking only current route tables omits the event that triggered the change, so it addresses change-correlated network incident diagnosis rather than the required observability of hybrid physical or connection faults.

D:

The proposed action applies a threshold and evaluation window to a measured security signal; CloudWatch dashboards show data but are not themselves notification rules, supporting automated drop-rate anomaly alerting but leaving observability of hybrid physical or connection faults unmet.

Question 475

A cross-account resource share invitation sits pending and the principal cannot access the resource. Which change is the most appropriate?

  1. Create an AWS RAM resource share for the gateway to the intended principals
  2. Share the Resolver rule through AWS RAM and associate receiving VPCs
  3. Share only the intended subnet resources through RAM
  4. Accept the RAM invitation when organization-based automatic sharing is not in effect
  5. Share the specific subnets using AWS RAM

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

This configuration approves permitted sharing outside automatically trusted organization contexts; resource ownership is not transferred by accepting a share, so it delivers activated accepted cross-account resource share under the stated constraints.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed action delegates attachment availability while retaining central gateway ownership; participants remain responsible for their VPC attachments and routes, supporting cross-account TGW sharing and governance but leaving activated accepted cross-account resource share unmet.

B:

This approach redistributes approved forwarding rule configuration to other accounts; endpoint network access is needed in addition to sharing a rule resource, which helps with reusable organization-wide DNS resolver rules instead of delivering activated accepted cross-account resource share.

C:

This alternative limits the network locations participant accounts can place authorized resources; broad OU or account sharing should not unintentionally expose unrelated subnets, so it addresses scoped multi-account subnet participation rather than the required activated accepted cross-account resource share.

E:

The proposed action permits participant-owned compute resources within centrally owned subnet boundaries; participants cannot generally modify the VPC's top-level routing controls, supporting centralized subnet ownership with decentralized workloads but leaving activated accepted cross-account resource share unmet.

Question 476

A public API owner wants to validate its zone with DNSSEC and needs AWS-managed KMS integration. What is the best next configuration decision?

  1. Replace the domain registration's NS delegation with the new hosted-zone set
  2. Enable DNSSEC signing with a supported KMS key and publish the DS at the parent
  3. Add the child zone's authoritative NS records in the parent hosted zone
  4. Use a Route 53 alias A/AAAA record as appropriate to the distribution

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The approach signs the zone and connects the chain of trust to its delegation; both key configuration and parent DS publication matter for validators, directly enabling cryptographically verifiable authoritative public DNS in this situation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Although this setting aligns the parent delegation with the active Route 53 nameservers, simply updating an A record cannot fix a stale delegation at the registrar; this concerns restored public DNS authority after zone recreation, not the specified cryptographically verifiable authoritative public DNS.

C:

This approach publishes delegated name-server referrals for that subdomain; creation of the child zone alone does not redirect recursion to it, which helps with separate administrative authority for a child namespace instead of delivering cryptographically verifiable authoritative public DNS.

D:

This alternative maps apex names to supported AWS resources without an apex CNAME; ordinary CNAME records are restricted at a zone apex, so it addresses valid apex routing to CloudFront rather than the required cryptographically verifiable authoritative public DNS.

Question 477

An ECS service launches and replaces task IPs frequently while its ALB must target active tasks. What should the network specialist configure?

  1. Install and configure the AWS Load Balancer Controller for ALB Ingress
  2. Scale the registered compute service using a suitable Auto Scaling policy
  3. Associate the ECS service with an appropriate ALB target group
  4. Use supported AWS Load Balancer Controller Service annotations and configuration

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

With this choice, the selected action manages registration of service tasks as they are placed and removed; manual static IP registration would lag behind service rescheduling, providing lifecycle-aware targets for changing ECS tasks for the network described.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This alternative reconciles Kubernetes Ingress definitions into supported AWS load-balancing resources; the relevant IAM permissions and controller installation must already exist, so it addresses automated ALB integration for Kubernetes ingress rather than the required lifecycle-aware targets for changing ECS tasks.

B:

Although this setting adds application targets in response to capacity or demand metrics, enlarging the load balancer alone does not create new workers; this concerns backend capacity scaling behind the load balancer, not the specified lifecycle-aware targets for changing ECS tasks.

D:

This approach reconciles Kubernetes Service resources into network load balancing settings; an Ingress-only ALB pattern targets HTTP routing instead, which helps with managed TCP Service ingress from Kubernetes instead of delivering lifecycle-aware targets for changing ECS tasks.

Question 478

An attacker may have modified a route before exfiltration and security needs both the traffic and the actor. Which option should the architect select?

  1. Mirror the target ENI traffic to a controlled packet collection appliance
  2. Centralize its network captures and security logs in a protected evidence account
  3. Correlate VPC Flow Logs with CloudTrail route-change events
  4. Inspect AWS Network Firewall alert and flow log entries

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The approach links data-plane network activity to control-plane API identity; relying on only a flow log would omit the change principal, directly enabling end-to-end incident timeline of traffic and configuration in this situation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This approach duplicates packets for deep protocol analysis without relying on app logs; VPC Flow Logs record connection metadata rather than payloads, which helps with forensic packet capture for suspicious EC2 traffic instead of delivering end-to-end incident timeline of traffic and configuration.

B:

This alternative preserves investigation data outside a potentially compromised workload; keeping the sole copy on the appliance leaves it vulnerable to deletion, so it addresses independent retention of inspection evidence rather than the required end-to-end incident timeline of traffic and configuration.

D:

The proposed action reports traffic observations and stateful policy matches for the deployed inspection; packet retransmission counters cannot reveal the matched Suricata rule, supporting evidence of firewall decision criteria but leaving end-to-end incident timeline of traffic and configuration unmet.

Question 479

A public service's health check must assert that an HTTPS response contains expected application content, not merely a successful TCP handshake. What is the best next configuration decision?

  1. Configure Route 53 multivalue answer routing with per-record health checks
  2. Publish a CloudWatch-alarm-based Route 53 health check driven by private endpoint metrics
  3. Configure an HTTPS Route 53 health check with a string match
  4. Enable evaluate target health on the Route 53 alias where supported

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

This configuration probes HTTP response content over TLS to classify endpoint health; TCP checks can succeed even when a wrong web page is served, so it delivers application-content-aware DNS health evaluation under the stated constraints.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed action returns multiple healthy DNS answers rather than one selected target; the client still selects and contacts an address without an intermediary proxy, supporting health-aware distribution of several IP addresses but leaving application-content-aware DNS health evaluation unmet.

B:

This approach uses an alarm state as health evidence instead of internet probes; directly probing an RFC1918-only target from public health checkers will not work, which helps with health-aware DNS failover for private targets instead of delivering application-content-aware DNS health evaluation.

D:

Although this setting uses the health of the referenced AWS resource in relevant routing decisions, an ordinary TCP probe to a single instance would not express ALB target-group health; this concerns load-balancer-aware Route 53 routing, not the specified application-content-aware DNS health evaluation.

Question 480

An enterprise deploys a new private root and clients reject its issued certificates as untrusted. Which action provides the required behavior?

  1. Use AWS Private CA with an appropriate internal certificate lifecycle
  2. Request an ACM public certificate with successful domain validation
  3. Define AWS Private CA subordinate CA and issuance controls
  4. Distribute the private CA trust anchor to intended client trust stores
  5. Revoke the affected private CA certificate and publish supported revocation information

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The approach establishes certificate-chain trust for privately issued endpoint certificates; server-side certificate installation alone does not make clients trust a private issuer, directly enabling accepted private-service TLS validation in this situation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Although this setting issues certificates chained to an organization-controlled private trust anchor, public browser trust is not automatic for a private root CA; this concerns private PKI identities for internal endpoints, not the specified accepted private-service TLS validation.

B:

The proposed action obtains publicly trusted certificates for supported integrated services; a certificate from an internal private CA is not automatically trusted by internet browsers, supporting public domain TLS identity and trust but leaving accepted private-service TLS validation unmet.

C:

This approach delegates private certificate issuance within a governed PKI hierarchy; a single unrestricted public certificate issuance workflow cannot enforce internal machine identity policy, which helps with controlled workload certificate identities instead of delivering accepted private-service TLS validation.

E:

Although this setting tells relying parties that the compromised certificate should no longer be trusted, merely removing the certificate from one server does not invalidate all copies; this concerns controlled PKI response to exposed keys, not the specified accepted private-service TLS validation.

AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Practice Tests