ACFE CFE - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes (Certified Fraud Examiner - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes) Practice Test 9

Question 80

The monitoring team needs an observable indicator of business email payment diversion. Which signal aligns most closely with the risk?

  1. Authentic-looking emails originate from an altered thread and route funds to a new account.
  2. Customers' payment confirmations name a recipient unrelated to the merchant.
  3. Debit originators lack customer authorization evidence and generate return disputes.
  4. Rapid loads and redemptions share devices and beneficiaries across cards.
  5. Device telemetry shows implausible proximity or timing between card and reader interactions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

This observation is a pertinent indicator of Business email payment diversion because the payment is authorized for a real invoice but settlement instructions are fraudulently replaced. The practical corroborating procedure is to verify beneficiary changes independently and inspect message headers and login records; the indicator by itself does not establish intent or error.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The proposed observation fits Fraudulent merchant QR redirect, where payment redirection changes the destination encoded in a legitimate-looking payment prompt, rather than the particular mechanism in Business email payment diversion. Unlike the clue for Fraudulent merchant QR redirect, the more directly related indicator for Business email payment diversion is this: Authentic-looking emails originate from an altered thread and route funds to a new account.

C:

The proposed observation fits Unauthorized ACH debit, where the debit exploits the payment rail without the payer's required consent, rather than the particular mechanism in Business email payment diversion. Unlike the clue for Unauthorized ACH debit, the more directly related indicator for Business email payment diversion is this: Authentic-looking emails originate from an altered thread and route funds to a new account.

D:

The proposed observation fits Prepaid card load-and-drain, where prepaid value can be used to convert unauthorized payments into quickly transferable balances, rather than the particular mechanism in Business email payment diversion. Unlike the clue for Prepaid card load-and-drain, the more directly related indicator for Business email payment diversion is this: Authentic-looking emails originate from an altered thread and route funds to a new account.

E:

The proposed observation fits Contactless payment relay, where relay attacks extend a credential's communication path rather than physically duplicating the card, rather than the particular mechanism in Business email payment diversion. Unlike the clue for Contactless payment relay, the more directly related indicator for Business email payment diversion is this: Authentic-looking emails originate from an altered thread and route funds to a new account.

Question 81

For a review of equity reconciliation, which evidence-based warning sign is the most specific?

  1. Loan agreements and bank movements show changes in borrowed capital.
  2. The margin calculation changes unexpectedly when cost of goods sold is misstated.
  3. The outflow bought a long-lived productive asset.
  4. The reported owners' interest does not equal assets less liabilities.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

This observation is a pertinent indicator of Equity reconciliation because equity is the residual interest in assets after deducting liabilities, not a bank balance or revenue figure. The practical corroborating procedure is to recalculate the accounting equation and trace changes to equity transactions and results; the indicator by itself does not establish intent or error.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed observation fits Financing cash-flow classification, where financing activities describe changes in funding from lenders and owners; classifications of interest can vary by accounting framework, rather than the particular mechanism in Equity reconciliation. Unlike the clue for Financing cash-flow classification, the more directly related indicator for Equity reconciliation is this: The reported owners' interest does not equal assets less liabilities.

B:

The proposed observation fits Gross-profit calculation, where gross profit isolates direct goods margin rather than the final earnings after all operating and other costs, rather than the particular mechanism in Equity reconciliation. Unlike the clue for Gross-profit calculation, the more directly related indicator for Equity reconciliation is this: The reported owners' interest does not equal assets less liabilities.

C:

The proposed observation fits Investing cash-flow classification, where buying plant equipment is generally an investing cash outflow, not a routine operating payment, rather than the particular mechanism in Equity reconciliation. Unlike the clue for Investing cash-flow classification, the more directly related indicator for Equity reconciliation is this: The reported owners' interest does not equal assets less liabilities.

Question 82

The case file describes the following: Several suppliers agree to take turns winning similar tenders and submit supporting bids when not scheduled to win. Which classification best explains the events?

  1. Complementary cover bidding
  2. Bid rotation agreement
  3. Bid suppression agreement
  4. Artificial urgency sole-source award

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Bid rotation agreement fits the facts because bid rotation is an agreement to allocate wins rather than genuine independent competition; the distinguishing observation is that winners rotate predictably among a stable bidder group despite changing cost conditions. To test this interpretation, a reviewer should analyze longitudinal award, bid spread and bidder-relationship patterns.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Complementary cover bidding would involve a different sequence from Bid rotation agreement: cover bids create an illusion of competition while protecting a preselected winner. Unlike the rejected Complementary cover bidding label, the evidence concerns Bid rotation agreement, since winners rotate predictably among a stable bidder group despite changing cost conditions; reviewers should analyze longitudinal award, bid spread and bidder-relationship patterns.

C:

Bid suppression agreement would involve a different sequence from Bid rotation agreement: suppressing bids reduces competition by preventing otherwise viable offers. Unlike the rejected Bid suppression agreement label, the evidence concerns Bid rotation agreement, since winners rotate predictably among a stable bidder group despite changing cost conditions; reviewers should analyze longitudinal award, bid spread and bidder-relationship patterns.

D:

Artificial urgency sole-source award would involve a different sequence from Bid rotation agreement: false urgency defeats normal competitive sourcing under an unjustified exception. Unlike the rejected Artificial urgency sole-source award label, the evidence concerns Bid rotation agreement, since winners rotate predictably among a stable bidder group despite changing cost conditions; reviewers should analyze longitudinal award, bid spread and bidder-relationship patterns.

Question 83

Reviewers flag a possible broker front-running client order issue. Their preliminary finding is: Employee trades consistently precede client orders and benefit from resulting price movements. Which test would best confirm or refute the concern?

  1. Compare trading timestamps, information access and public-disclosure chronology.
  2. Correlate promotional communications with trading accounts and beneficial ownership.
  3. Compare business activities and compensation against applicable regulator registrations.
  4. Join employee transaction records with confidential order timestamps and market prices.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

For the Broker front-running client order concern, the procedure tests source evidence behind this observation: Employee trades consistently precede client orders and benefit from resulting price movements. This matters because misusing confidential customer-order knowledge for personal gain creates market-abuse and conflict risks; independent corroboration is necessary before accepting any conclusion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This comparison primarily addresses Material nonpublic information trading, in which trading on material information not publicly available may breach insider-trading rules depending on the jurisdiction and duties involved; because the present question instead concerns Broker front-running client order, reviewers should join employee transaction records with confidential order timestamps and market prices rather than apply a check designed for Material nonpublic information trading.

B:

This comparison primarily addresses Pump-and-dump stock promotion, in which false hype can induce investor purchases while manipulators unload inflated positions; because the present question instead concerns Broker front-running client order, reviewers should join employee transaction records with confidential order timestamps and market prices rather than apply a check designed for Pump-and-dump stock promotion.

C:

This comparison primarily addresses Unregistered brokerage solicitation, in which securities-related compensation and solicitation can trigger registration obligations under relevant laws; because the present question instead concerns Broker front-running client order, reviewers should join employee transaction records with confidential order timestamps and market prices rather than apply a check designed for Unregistered brokerage solicitation.

Question 84

The review team observes the following: The chosen treatment is authorized by tax rules and appears transparently in the return. It seeks one targeted detection step and one preventive measure that address the same underlying vulnerability. Which pairing is best?

  1. Diagnostic: Reconcile independent sales evidence with filed taxable income; safeguard: Document lawful elections and avoid misrepresentation of relevant facts.
  2. Diagnostic: Verify claimed costs against real supplier transactions and business purpose; safeguard: Apply substance-over-form review and follow applicable transfer-pricing rules.
  3. Diagnostic: Confirm statutory eligibility, election documentation and consistent filings; safeguard: Document lawful elections and avoid misrepresentation of relevant facts.
  4. Diagnostic: Confirm statutory eligibility, election documentation and consistent filings; safeguard: Require substantiation and independent review of high-risk deductions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The test addresses Lawful tax planning distinction by targeting this observation: The chosen treatment is authorized by tax rules and appears transparently in the return. The accompanying safeguard—document lawful elections and avoid misrepresentation of relevant facts—counters the same opportunity, so both checking and prevention concern one cause.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed safeguard is relevant to Lawful tax planning distinction, but the diagnostic tests Unreported cash taxable income rather than the identified anomaly. That test is aimed at records involving payment processor and inventory records indicate sales above the tax returns; the specified case instead calls for reviewers to confirm statutory eligibility, election documentation and consistent filings.

B:

The evidence test relates to Fabricated deductible business cost, whereas the proposed safeguard protects against Sham offshore tax shelter; neither directly resolves Lawful tax planning distinction. Unlike the Fabricated deductible business cost test and Sham offshore tax shelter safeguard, the investigation of Lawful tax planning distinction requires reviewers to confirm statutory eligibility, election documentation and consistent filings, followed by assessment of the matching control point.

D:

The diagnostic correctly examines Lawful tax planning distinction by having reviewers confirm statutory eligibility, election documentation and consistent filings, but the safeguard is for Fabricated deductible business cost. That prevention step responds to a different mechanism: A fictitious expense reduces reported taxable income without a genuine economic cost.

Question 85

The case file describes the following: An authorized custodian quietly removes counted petty cash from a locked safe and replaces the count sheet. Which classification best explains the events?

  1. Deposit-bag substitution
  2. Cash-sale understatement
  3. Cash-safe theft
  4. Charity donation skimming

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Cash-safe theft fits the facts because theft of cash on hand depletes a recorded fund without necessarily involving a sales transaction; the distinguishing observation is that surprise cash counts fall below the petty-cash ledger balance. To test this interpretation, a reviewer should recount the fund unexpectedly and inspect replenishment vouchers.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Deposit-bag substitution would involve a different sequence from Cash-safe theft: the removal occurs after recording and before funds reach the bank. Unlike the rejected Deposit-bag substitution label, the evidence concerns Cash-safe theft, since surprise cash counts fall below the petty-cash ledger balance; reviewers should recount the fund unexpectedly and inspect replenishment vouchers.

B:

Cash-sale understatement would involve a different sequence from Cash-safe theft: the portion never entered in the till is skimmed even though a partial sale appears in the books. Unlike the rejected Cash-sale understatement label, the evidence concerns Cash-safe theft, since surprise cash counts fall below the petty-cash ledger balance; reviewers should recount the fund unexpectedly and inspect replenishment vouchers.

D:

Charity donation skimming would involve a different sequence from Cash-safe theft: a donation stolen before entry may leave no accounting shortage unless outside records are used. Unlike the rejected Charity donation skimming label, the evidence concerns Cash-safe theft, since surprise cash counts fall below the petty-cash ledger balance; reviewers should recount the fund unexpectedly and inspect replenishment vouchers.

Question 86

The monitoring team needs an observable indicator of advance-fee lottery fraud. Which signal aligns most closely with the risk?

  1. Platform balances rise without verifiable custody and withdrawal attempts trigger extra demands.
  2. A surprise prize demand has no verifiable entry and requires upfront payment.
  3. Affectionate messaging precedes escalating transfers to unfamiliar financial or crypto accounts.
  4. Redemptions correlate with fresh investor money instead of investment profits.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

This observation is a pertinent indicator of Advance-fee lottery fraud because the promise of future value is used to extract an immediate fee without a real award. The practical corroborating procedure is to verify the awarding organization independently and follow payments to recipients; the indicator by itself does not establish intent or error.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed observation fits Pig-butchering investment scam, where long-form social engineering combines relationship grooming with fabricated investment performance, rather than the particular mechanism in Advance-fee lottery fraud. Unlike the clue for Pig-butchering investment scam, the more directly related indicator for Advance-fee lottery fraud is this: A surprise prize demand has no verifiable entry and requires upfront payment.

C:

The proposed observation fits Online romance investment grooming, where the fraud uses emotional trust to induce transfers, often without the promised investment existing, rather than the particular mechanism in Advance-fee lottery fraud. Unlike the clue for Online romance investment grooming, the more directly related indicator for Advance-fee lottery fraud is this: A surprise prize demand has no verifiable entry and requires upfront payment.

D:

The proposed observation fits Ponzi payout financing, where a Ponzi structure pays old investors with new funds while misrepresenting actual returns, rather than the particular mechanism in Advance-fee lottery fraud. Unlike the clue for Ponzi payout financing, the more directly related indicator for Advance-fee lottery fraud is this: A surprise prize demand has no verifiable entry and requires upfront payment.

Question 87

A reviewer wants to distinguish bankruptcy bust-out credit buying from adjacent risk patterns. Which observation is the most diagnostic indicator?

  1. A credible operating plan exists and management proposes a going-concern recovery.
  2. The alleged loan lacks bank funding and contemporaneous loan documents.
  3. Customer confirmations and creditor support contradict filed values.
  4. Sale value and related-party timing are inconsistent with an arm's-length transfer.
  5. Purchases accelerate before filing while sale proceeds are diverted.

Explanation

Correct Answer

E:

This observation is a pertinent indicator of Bankruptcy bust-out credit buying because a planned bust-out extracts value from vendors through deliberate nonpayment and asset diversion. The practical corroborating procedure is to trace inventory purchases, resale proceeds and pre-filing management communications; the indicator by itself does not establish intent or error.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed observation fits Liquidation versus reorganization, where reorganization aims to preserve or restructure the enterprise; liquidation ordinarily realizes assets for distribution, rather than the particular mechanism in Bankruptcy bust-out credit buying. Unlike the clue for Liquidation versus reorganization, the more directly related indicator for Bankruptcy bust-out credit buying is this: Purchases accelerate before filing while sale proceeds are diverted.

B:

The proposed observation fits Fictitious creditor claim, where a manufactured liability can dilute legitimate creditors' recoveries, rather than the particular mechanism in Bankruptcy bust-out credit buying. Unlike the clue for Fictitious creditor claim, the more directly related indicator for Bankruptcy bust-out credit buying is this: Purchases accelerate before filing while sale proceeds are diverted.

C:

The proposed observation fits False insolvency schedules, where false asset and debt statements distort the administration of the insolvency estate, rather than the particular mechanism in Bankruptcy bust-out credit buying. Unlike the clue for False insolvency schedules, the more directly related indicator for Bankruptcy bust-out credit buying is this: Purchases accelerate before filing while sale proceeds are diverted.

D:

The proposed observation fits Pre-filing fraudulent asset transfer, where transfers intended to put assets beyond creditors may be challengeable under applicable insolvency law, rather than the particular mechanism in Bankruptcy bust-out credit buying. Unlike the clue for Pre-filing fraudulent asset transfer, the more directly related indicator for Bankruptcy bust-out credit buying is this: Purchases accelerate before filing while sale proceeds are diverted.

Question 88

The review team observes the following: Customer correspondence conflicts with the written contract and booked revenue. It seeks one targeted detection step and one preventive measure that address the same underlying vulnerability. Which pairing is best?

  1. Diagnostic: Obtain independent customer terms and inspect side letters and subsequent cancellations; safeguard: Require legal and finance review of all amendments affecting recognition.
  2. Diagnostic: Search subsequent disbursements for missing accruals and compare receiving logs with liabilities; safeguard: Review rights of return and whether control genuinely transferred before accepting sales.
  3. Diagnostic: Obtain independent customer terms and inspect side letters and subsequent cancellations; safeguard: Independently review goods and services received near the cutoff date.
  4. Diagnostic: Inspect additions to capital accounts against invoice descriptions and capitalization policies; safeguard: Require legal and finance review of all amendments affecting recognition.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The test addresses Concealed sales-side agreement by targeting this observation: Customer correspondence conflicts with the written contract and booked revenue. The accompanying safeguard—require legal and finance review of all amendments affecting recognition—counters the same opportunity, so both checking and prevention concern one cause.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The evidence test relates to Unrecorded accrued liabilities, whereas the proposed safeguard protects against Channel-stuffing manipulation; neither directly resolves Concealed sales-side agreement. Unlike the Unrecorded accrued liabilities test and Channel-stuffing manipulation safeguard, the investigation of Concealed sales-side agreement requires reviewers to obtain independent customer terms and inspect side letters and subsequent cancellations, followed by assessment of the matching control point.

C:

The diagnostic correctly examines Concealed sales-side agreement by having reviewers obtain independent customer terms and inspect side letters and subsequent cancellations, but the safeguard is for Unrecorded accrued liabilities. That prevention step responds to a different mechanism: Omitting obligations understates liabilities and costs rather than creating new cash resources.

D:

The proposed safeguard is relevant to Concealed sales-side agreement, but the diagnostic tests Capitalized routine operating costs rather than the identified anomaly. That test is aimed at records involving unusual new assets have expense-like vendor descriptions and no future qualifying benefit; the specified case instead calls for reviewers to obtain independent customer terms and inspect side letters and subsequent cancellations.

Question 89

The case file describes the following: A manager approves recurring invoices for advisory work that no one can substantiate. Which classification best explains the events?

  1. Duplicate vendor-invoice payment
  2. Unreceived goods billing
  3. Phantom consulting fees
  4. Split procurement invoices

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Phantom consulting fees fits the facts because fabricated intangible services can be billed without the physical receiving evidence used for goods; the distinguishing observation is that payments recur despite missing work products, timesheets or meeting records. To test this interpretation, a reviewer should corroborate contract deliverables with employees and independent project evidence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Duplicate vendor-invoice payment would involve a different sequence from Phantom consulting fees: the scheme exploits duplicate settlement of one legitimate obligation. Unlike the rejected Duplicate vendor-invoice payment label, the evidence concerns Phantom consulting fees, since payments recur despite missing work products, timesheets or meeting records; reviewers should corroborate contract deliverables with employees and independent project evidence.

B:

Unreceived goods billing would involve a different sequence from Phantom consulting fees: the payer is charged for goods that were never delivered or accepted. Unlike the rejected Unreceived goods billing label, the evidence concerns Phantom consulting fees, since payments recur despite missing work products, timesheets or meeting records; reviewers should corroborate contract deliverables with employees and independent project evidence.

D:

Split procurement invoices would involve a different sequence from Phantom consulting fees: splitting evades approval controls that would apply to the whole purchase. Unlike the rejected Split procurement invoices label, the evidence concerns Phantom consulting fees, since payments recur despite missing work products, timesheets or meeting records; reviewers should corroborate contract deliverables with employees and independent project evidence.

Question 90

A finance team is reviewing the accuracy of financing cash-flow classification. Relevant accounting principle: Financing activities describe changes in funding from lenders and owners; classifications of interest can vary by accounting framework. Which procedure best supports reliable treatment?

  1. Separate principal movements from operations and apply the relevant framework to interest classification.
  2. Classify cash from routine business activities separately from investing and financing flows.
  3. Compute gross profit as net sales less cost of goods sold under the applicable reporting framework.
  4. Reconcile assets, liabilities and equity before releasing the statement of financial position.
  5. Document the applicable IFRS or national GAAP requirements and reconcile consolidation adjustments.
  6. Classify cash purchases and disposals of qualifying long-term assets in investing activities.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The control directly addresses the failure point in Financing cash-flow classification, since financing activities describe changes in funding from lenders and owners; classifications of interest can vary by accounting framework. A subsequent independent review could reconcile borrowing and principal-repayment transactions to financing cash flows to identify exceptions that bypassed the safeguard.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Operating cash-flow classification rather than Financing cash-flow classification, because operating cash flows concern core activities and need not equal accrual net income. Unlike the control for Operating cash-flow classification, the more direct design for Financing cash-flow classification is to separate principal movements from operations and apply the relevant framework to interest classification; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

C:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Gross-profit calculation rather than Financing cash-flow classification, because gross profit isolates direct goods margin rather than the final earnings after all operating and other costs. Unlike the control for Gross-profit calculation, the more direct design for Financing cash-flow classification is to separate principal movements from operations and apply the relevant framework to interest classification; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

D:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Equity reconciliation rather than Financing cash-flow classification, because equity is the residual interest in assets after deducting liabilities, not a bank balance or revenue figure. Unlike the control for Equity reconciliation, the more direct design for Financing cash-flow classification is to separate principal movements from operations and apply the relevant framework to interest classification; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

E:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Accounting-framework selection rather than Financing cash-flow classification, because iFRS and national GAAP are accounting frameworks; their use depends on reporting requirements, not the invoice currency. Unlike the control for Accounting-framework selection, the more direct design for Financing cash-flow classification is to separate principal movements from operations and apply the relevant framework to interest classification; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

F:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Investing cash-flow classification rather than Financing cash-flow classification, because buying plant equipment is generally an investing cash outflow, not a routine operating payment. Unlike the control for Investing cash-flow classification, the more direct design for Financing cash-flow classification is to separate principal movements from operations and apply the relevant framework to interest classification; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

Certified Fraud Examiner - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes (CFE - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes) Practice Tests