ACFE CFE - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes (Certified Fraud Examiner - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes) Practice Test 30

Question 290

Two separate review files raise different issues. File A: An employee installs a browser plug-in that secretly reads sensitive web-form data and sends it externally. File B: An attacker repeatedly triggers authentication approvals until the victim accepts one to stop notifications. Which pairing accurately classifies both files?

  1. File A: Remote desktop credential intrusion; File B: MFA-push fatigue attack.
  2. File A: Malicious browser extension; File B: MFA-push fatigue attack.
  3. File A: Malicious browser extension; File B: Botnet-enabled account attacks.
  4. File A: MFA-push fatigue attack; File B: Malicious browser extension.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

File A is Malicious browser extension because browser extensions can misuse broad page-access permissions without a classic email attachment, while File B is MFA-push fatigue attack because repeated prompts exploit human approval fatigue rather than cracking the second factor. The evidence chains differ: for File A, reviewers should inspect extension inventory, permissions and network destinations; for File B, they should correlate challenge frequency and user responses with session details.

Incorrect Answers

A:

File A is misidentified as Remote desktop credential intrusion instead of Malicious browser extension. With the proposed pairing Remote desktop credential intrusion / MFA-push fatigue attack, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that unapproved extension permissions include access to every page and outbound transfers, whereas File B shows that many denied push prompts precede an approved login from an unfamiliar device. For these Malicious browser extension and MFA-push fatigue attack files, choosing the pair Remote desktop credential intrusion / MFA-push fatigue attack would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

C:

File B is misidentified as Botnet-enabled account attacks instead of MFA-push fatigue attack. With the proposed pairing Malicious browser extension / Botnet-enabled account attacks, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that unapproved extension permissions include access to every page and outbound transfers, whereas File B shows that many denied push prompts precede an approved login from an unfamiliar device. For these Malicious browser extension and MFA-push fatigue attack files, choosing the pair Malicious browser extension / Botnet-enabled account attacks would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

D:

File A is misidentified as MFA-push fatigue attack instead of Malicious browser extension; File B is misidentified as Malicious browser extension instead of MFA-push fatigue attack. With the proposed pairing MFA-push fatigue attack / Malicious browser extension, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that unapproved extension permissions include access to every page and outbound transfers, whereas File B shows that many denied push prompts precede an approved login from an unfamiliar device. For these Malicious browser extension and MFA-push fatigue attack files, choosing the pair MFA-push fatigue attack / Malicious browser extension would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

Question 291

The team is assessing a potential accounting-framework selection discrepancy. Initial observation: The same transaction receives conflicting treatment because preparers use incompatible rulebooks. Which verification step is most informative?

  1. Trace receipt dates and service periods to deferred-revenue rollforwards.
  2. Match recorded sales and corresponding inventory costs before analyzing gross margin.
  3. Compare engagement acceptance records with unbilled-revenue and subsequent-invoice schedules around year-end.
  4. Review the reporting basis in the financial statement notes and entity-level accounting policies.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

For the Accounting-framework selection concern, the procedure tests source evidence behind this observation: The same transaction receives conflicting treatment because preparers use incompatible rulebooks. This matters because iFRS and national GAAP are accounting frameworks; their use depends on reporting requirements, not the invoice currency; independent corroboration is necessary before accepting any conclusion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This comparison primarily addresses Deferred customer revenue, in which prepayment does not by itself make the entire receipt current-period income; the unperformed portion represents an obligation; because the present question instead concerns Accounting-framework selection, reviewers should review the reporting basis in the financial statement notes and entity-level accounting policies rather than apply a check designed for Deferred customer revenue.

B:

This comparison primarily addresses Gross-profit calculation, in which gross profit isolates direct goods margin rather than the final earnings after all operating and other costs; because the present question instead concerns Accounting-framework selection, reviewers should review the reporting basis in the financial statement notes and entity-level accounting policies rather than apply a check designed for Gross-profit calculation.

C:

This comparison primarily addresses Accrued service revenue, in which under accrual accounting, revenue relates to the period when the service was performed, not simply the invoice or cash date; because the present question instead concerns Accounting-framework selection, reviewers should review the reporting basis in the financial statement notes and entity-level accounting policies rather than apply a check designed for Accrued service revenue.

Question 292

An exception review involving botnet-enabled account attacks identifies the following: Login bursts originate from distributed hosts with synchronized behavior. Which evidence comparison most directly evaluates the facts?

  1. Analyze request patterns, device reputation and common command signatures.
  2. Analyze lateral network connections and common exploit artifacts.
  3. Correlate challenge frequency and user responses with session details.
  4. Inspect extension inventory, permissions and network destinations.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

For the Botnet-enabled account attacks concern, the procedure tests source evidence behind this observation: Login bursts originate from distributed hosts with synchronized behavior. This matters because a botnet coordinates compromised machines to perform automated abuse at scale; independent corroboration is necessary before accepting any conclusion.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This comparison primarily addresses Self-propagating network worm, in which a worm propagates autonomously; a conventional virus generally attaches to a host file or program; because the present question instead concerns Botnet-enabled account attacks, reviewers should analyze request patterns, device reputation and common command signatures rather than apply a check designed for Self-propagating network worm.

C:

This comparison primarily addresses MFA-push fatigue attack, in which repeated prompts exploit human approval fatigue rather than cracking the second factor; because the present question instead concerns Botnet-enabled account attacks, reviewers should analyze request patterns, device reputation and common command signatures rather than apply a check designed for MFA-push fatigue attack.

D:

This comparison primarily addresses Malicious browser extension, in which browser extensions can misuse broad page-access permissions without a classic email attachment; because the present question instead concerns Botnet-enabled account attacks, reviewers should analyze request patterns, device reputation and common command signatures rather than apply a check designed for Malicious browser extension.

Question 293

The team is assessing a potential fictitious disaster relief business discrepancy. Initial observation: Business registration, tax and payroll records fail to support the claimed operation. Which verification step is most informative?

  1. Compare engineering test results, supplier records and acceptance approvals.
  2. Confirm milestone completion with independent beneficiaries and time records.
  3. Reconcile employee time allocation and invoice support across grants.
  4. Cross-match beneficiary status with authorized registries and payment destinations.
  5. Verify existence and pre-disaster activity using independent authoritative records.

Explanation

Correct Answer

E:

For the Fictitious disaster relief business concern, the procedure tests source evidence behind this observation: Business registration, tax and payroll records fail to support the claimed operation. This matters because crisis support can be abused through fictitious claimants and fabricated losses; independent corroboration is necessary before accepting any conclusion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This comparison primarily addresses Substandard public works certification, in which taxpayer money pays for specifications that were not actually met; because the present question instead concerns Fictitious disaster relief business, reviewers should verify existence and pre-disaster activity using independent authoritative records rather than apply a check designed for Substandard public works certification.

B:

This comparison primarily addresses False government grant deliverables, in which a grant recipient obtains public funds by falsely certifying eligible performance; because the present question instead concerns Fictitious disaster relief business, reviewers should verify existence and pre-disaster activity using independent authoritative records rather than apply a check designed for False government grant deliverables.

C:

This comparison primarily addresses Double-charged public grant costs, in which a real cost becomes fraudulent when recovered more than once from restricted funding sources; because the present question instead concerns Fictitious disaster relief business, reviewers should verify existence and pre-disaster activity using independent authoritative records rather than apply a check designed for Double-charged public grant costs.

D:

This comparison primarily addresses Ghost public-assistance beneficiaries, in which public funds continue flowing to people who should not receive benefits; because the present question instead concerns Fictitious disaster relief business, reviewers should verify existence and pre-disaster activity using independent authoritative records rather than apply a check designed for Ghost public-assistance beneficiaries.

Question 294

Reviewers flag a possible synthetic identity borrowing issue. Their preliminary finding is: Identity attributes do not reliably resolve to one genuine person across independent sources. Which test would best confirm or refute the concern?

  1. Cross-check filing authentication, prior history and payout beneficiaries.
  2. Compare date of birth and identity verification data with account origination records.
  3. Cross-validate identity attributes and account histories using reliable independent records.
  4. Confirm applicant control through independent identity checks and device history.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

For the Synthetic identity borrowing concern, the procedure tests source evidence behind this observation: Identity attributes do not reliably resolve to one genuine person across independent sources. This matters because a synthetic identity blends genuine and invented attributes rather than simply impersonating one full real identity; independent corroboration is necessary before accepting any conclusion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This comparison primarily addresses Identity-based tax refund diversion, in which the scheme monetizes stolen taxpayer identity through a fraudulent government refund claim; because the present question instead concerns Synthetic identity borrowing, reviewers should cross-validate identity attributes and account histories using reliable independent records rather than apply a check designed for Identity-based tax refund diversion.

B:

This comparison primarily addresses Child identity misuse, in which children's identifiers can be exploited because misuse may remain unnoticed for years; because the present question instead concerns Synthetic identity borrowing, reviewers should cross-validate identity attributes and account histories using reliable independent records rather than apply a check designed for Child identity misuse.

D:

This comparison primarily addresses Stolen-personal-data loan, in which an impersonator assumes a real victim's identity to obtain an unauthorized loan; because the present question instead concerns Synthetic identity borrowing, reviewers should cross-validate identity attributes and account histories using reliable independent records rather than apply a check designed for Stolen-personal-data loan.

Question 295

The review team observes the following: Bank-detail changes immediately precede pay to unfamiliar accounts. It seeks one targeted detection step and one preventive measure that address the same underlying vulnerability. Which pairing is best?

  1. Diagnostic: Inspect change logs and independently confirm altered deposit instructions with workers; safeguard: Separate incentive authorization from payroll entry and payment release.
  2. Diagnostic: Inspect change logs and independently confirm altered deposit instructions with workers; safeguard: Require strong authentication and separate approval for bank-detail updates.
  3. Diagnostic: Compare exception payroll components with board-approved bonus rules and signatures; safeguard: Base commission eligibility on verified, sustained sale criteria.
  4. Diagnostic: Compare termination events and exit records to pay runs and account beneficiaries; safeguard: Require strong authentication and separate approval for bank-detail updates.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The test addresses Payroll direct-deposit diversion by targeting this observation: Bank-detail changes immediately precede pay to unfamiliar accounts. The accompanying safeguard—require strong authentication and separate approval for bank-detail updates—counters the same opportunity, so both checking and prevention concern one cause.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The diagnostic correctly examines Payroll direct-deposit diversion by having reviewers inspect change logs and independently confirm altered deposit instructions with workers, but the safeguard is for Unauthorized bonus disbursement. That prevention step responds to a different mechanism: Improper one-off payments exploit weak controls over discretionary compensation.

C:

The evidence test relates to Unauthorized bonus disbursement, whereas the proposed safeguard protects against Manipulated commission sales; neither directly resolves Payroll direct-deposit diversion. Unlike the Unauthorized bonus disbursement test and Manipulated commission sales safeguard, the investigation of Payroll direct-deposit diversion requires reviewers to inspect change logs and independently confirm altered deposit instructions with workers, followed by assessment of the matching control point.

D:

The proposed safeguard is relevant to Payroll direct-deposit diversion, but the diagnostic tests Terminated worker retained on payroll rather than the identified anomaly. That test is aimed at records involving payments continue after recorded termination dates in the HR system; the specified case instead calls for reviewers to inspect change logs and independently confirm altered deposit instructions with workers.

Question 296

Control designers are focusing on the mechanism behind integration through luxury property: Integration converts earlier illicit value into apparently lawful assets or proceeds. Which measure best limits that opportunity?

  1. Apply trade-document and price-reasonableness screening to high-risk transactions.
  2. Verify source of funds and beneficial ownership for risk-sensitive property transactions.
  3. Use behavioral monitoring and customer education about paid transfer requests.
  4. Apply enhanced scrutiny to rapid complex transfers inconsistent with customer activity.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The control directly addresses the failure point in Integration through luxury property, since integration converts earlier illicit value into apparently lawful assets or proceeds. A subsequent independent review could trace the purchase funds, beneficial owner and later disposition proceeds to identify exceptions that bypassed the safeguard.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Trade over-invoicing rather than Integration through luxury property, because inflated trade prices can transfer value across borders under cover of legitimate commerce. Unlike the control for Trade over-invoicing, the more direct design for Integration through luxury property is to verify source of funds and beneficial ownership for risk-sensitive property transactions; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

C:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Money-mule transfers rather than Integration through luxury property, because money mules help move proceeds while separating the originator from subsequent recipients. Unlike the control for Money-mule transfers, the more direct design for Integration through luxury property is to verify source of funds and beneficial ownership for risk-sensitive property transactions; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

D:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Layering through repeated wires rather than Integration through luxury property, because layering introduces transaction complexity to obscure the origin and control of funds. Unlike the control for Layering through repeated wires, the more direct design for Integration through luxury property is to verify source of funds and beneficial ownership for risk-sensitive property transactions; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

Question 297

Two separate review files raise different issues. File A: A group buys high-value prepaid cards with suspect cash and transfers or resells them. File B: An operator settles customer transfers through a network of brokers that net obligations rather than wiring each transfer. Which pairing accurately classifies both files?

  1. File A: Stored-value card conversion; File B: Virtual-asset layering.
  2. File A: Virtual-asset layering; File B: Stored-value card conversion.
  3. File A: Alternative remittance settlement; File B: Stored-value card conversion.
  4. File A: Stored-value card conversion; File B: Alternative remittance settlement.
  5. File A: Opaque beneficial-ownership layers; File B: Alternative remittance settlement.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

File A is Stored-value card conversion because stored-value instruments can move purchasing power while distancing it from original cash, while File B is Alternative remittance settlement because value transfer can occur through broker-ledgers and net settlements, whether legitimate or abused. The evidence chains differ: for File A, reviewers should link funding methods, card serials and redemption beneficiaries; for File B, they should reconcile sender receipts, broker obligations and final beneficiary payouts.

Incorrect Answers

A:

File B is misidentified as Virtual-asset layering instead of Alternative remittance settlement. With the proposed pairing Stored-value card conversion / Virtual-asset layering, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that repeated card purchases and redemptions are connected across nominally unrelated buyers, whereas File B shows that payments and settlement records do not resemble ordinary end-to-end bank transfers. For these Stored-value card conversion and Alternative remittance settlement files, choosing the pair Stored-value card conversion / Virtual-asset layering would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

B:

File A is misidentified as Virtual-asset layering instead of Stored-value card conversion; File B is misidentified as Stored-value card conversion instead of Alternative remittance settlement. With the proposed pairing Virtual-asset layering / Stored-value card conversion, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that repeated card purchases and redemptions are connected across nominally unrelated buyers, whereas File B shows that payments and settlement records do not resemble ordinary end-to-end bank transfers. For these Stored-value card conversion and Alternative remittance settlement files, choosing the pair Virtual-asset layering / Stored-value card conversion would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

C:

File A is misidentified as Alternative remittance settlement instead of Stored-value card conversion; File B is misidentified as Stored-value card conversion instead of Alternative remittance settlement. With the proposed pairing Alternative remittance settlement / Stored-value card conversion, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that repeated card purchases and redemptions are connected across nominally unrelated buyers, whereas File B shows that payments and settlement records do not resemble ordinary end-to-end bank transfers. For these Stored-value card conversion and Alternative remittance settlement files, choosing the pair Alternative remittance settlement / Stored-value card conversion would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

E:

File A is misidentified as Opaque beneficial-ownership layers instead of Stored-value card conversion. With the proposed pairing Opaque beneficial-ownership layers / Alternative remittance settlement, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that repeated card purchases and redemptions are connected across nominally unrelated buyers, whereas File B shows that payments and settlement records do not resemble ordinary end-to-end bank transfers. For these Stored-value card conversion and Alternative remittance settlement files, choosing the pair Opaque beneficial-ownership layers / Alternative remittance settlement would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

Question 298

The review team observes the following: Loan agreements and bank movements show changes in borrowed capital. It seeks one targeted detection step and one preventive measure that address the same underlying vulnerability. Which pairing is best?

  1. Diagnostic: Reconcile borrowing and principal-repayment transactions to financing cash flows; safeguard: Separate principal movements from operations and apply the relevant framework to interest classification.
  2. Diagnostic: Match recorded sales and corresponding inventory costs before analyzing gross margin; safeguard: Classify cash purchases and disposals of qualifying long-term assets in investing activities.
  3. Diagnostic: Reconcile borrowing and principal-repayment transactions to financing cash flows; safeguard: Compute gross profit as net sales less cost of goods sold under the applicable reporting framework.
  4. Diagnostic: Recalculate the accounting equation and trace changes to equity transactions and results; safeguard: Separate principal movements from operations and apply the relevant framework to interest classification.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The test addresses Financing cash-flow classification by targeting this observation: Loan agreements and bank movements show changes in borrowed capital. The accompanying safeguard—separate principal movements from operations and apply the relevant framework to interest classification—counters the same opportunity, so both checking and prevention concern one cause.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The evidence test relates to Gross-profit calculation, whereas the proposed safeguard protects against Investing cash-flow classification; neither directly resolves Financing cash-flow classification. Unlike the Gross-profit calculation test and Investing cash-flow classification safeguard, the investigation of Financing cash-flow classification requires reviewers to reconcile borrowing and principal-repayment transactions to financing cash flows, followed by assessment of the matching control point.

C:

The diagnostic correctly examines Financing cash-flow classification by having reviewers reconcile borrowing and principal-repayment transactions to financing cash flows, but the safeguard is for Gross-profit calculation. That prevention step responds to a different mechanism: Gross profit isolates direct goods margin rather than the final earnings after all operating and other costs.

D:

The proposed safeguard is relevant to Financing cash-flow classification, but the diagnostic tests Equity reconciliation rather than the identified anomaly. That test is aimed at records involving the reported owners' interest does not equal assets less liabilities; the specified case instead calls for reviewers to reconcile borrowing and principal-repayment transactions to financing cash flows.

Question 299

An analyst is selecting warning signs for pump-and-dump stock promotion. Which recorded pattern should receive focused attention?

  1. Employee trades consistently precede client orders and benefit from resulting price movements.
  2. Coordinated promotional bursts coincide with insider selling and extreme price reversals.
  3. Trades by insiders closely precede market-moving news and differ from prior patterns.
  4. Internal legal memoranda identify major risks absent from investor materials.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

This observation is a pertinent indicator of Pump-and-dump stock promotion because false hype can induce investor purchases while manipulators unload inflated positions. The practical corroborating procedure is to correlate promotional communications with trading accounts and beneficial ownership; the indicator by itself does not establish intent or error.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed observation fits Broker front-running client order, where misusing confidential customer-order knowledge for personal gain creates market-abuse and conflict risks, rather than the particular mechanism in Pump-and-dump stock promotion. Unlike the clue for Broker front-running client order, the more directly related indicator for Pump-and-dump stock promotion is this: Coordinated promotional bursts coincide with insider selling and extreme price reversals.

C:

The proposed observation fits Material nonpublic information trading, where trading on material information not publicly available may breach insider-trading rules depending on the jurisdiction and duties involved, rather than the particular mechanism in Pump-and-dump stock promotion. Unlike the clue for Material nonpublic information trading, the more directly related indicator for Pump-and-dump stock promotion is this: Coordinated promotional bursts coincide with insider selling and extreme price reversals.

D:

The proposed observation fits Misleading offering prospectus, where omission of decision-useful facts can mislead investors even where some published numbers are accurate, rather than the particular mechanism in Pump-and-dump stock promotion. Unlike the clue for Misleading offering prospectus, the more directly related indicator for Pump-and-dump stock promotion is this: Coordinated promotional bursts coincide with insider selling and extreme price reversals.

Question 300

An analyst is selecting warning signs for fictitious travel reimbursement. Which recorded pattern should receive focused attention?

  1. Payments continue after recorded termination dates in the HR system.
  2. Travel bookings and attendance logs do not support the submitted expenses.
  3. Matching receipt hashes, amounts and dates appear in multiple paid claims.
  4. Bonus payouts lack approved evaluation and authorization records.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

This observation is a pertinent indicator of Fictitious travel reimbursement because the claimant seeks payment for an expense that was never incurred. The practical corroborating procedure is to verify lodging invoices with approved travel itineraries and actual attendance; the indicator by itself does not establish intent or error.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed observation fits Terminated worker retained on payroll, where continuing pay to a departed employee produces a disbursement with no current employment basis, rather than the particular mechanism in Fictitious travel reimbursement. Unlike the clue for Terminated worker retained on payroll, the more directly related indicator for Fictitious travel reimbursement is this: Travel bookings and attendance logs do not support the submitted expenses.

C:

The proposed observation fits Duplicate expense reimbursement, where one real expense is reimbursed more than once, inflating the employee's recovery, rather than the particular mechanism in Fictitious travel reimbursement. Unlike the clue for Duplicate expense reimbursement, the more directly related indicator for Fictitious travel reimbursement is this: Travel bookings and attendance logs do not support the submitted expenses.

D:

The proposed observation fits Unauthorized bonus disbursement, where improper one-off payments exploit weak controls over discretionary compensation, rather than the particular mechanism in Fictitious travel reimbursement. Unlike the clue for Unauthorized bonus disbursement, the more directly related indicator for Fictitious travel reimbursement is this: Travel bookings and attendance logs do not support the submitted expenses.

Certified Fraud Examiner - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes (CFE - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes) Practice Tests