ACFE CFE - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes (Certified Fraud Examiner - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes) Practice Test 28

Question 270

The review team observes the following: Onboarding identity records fail independent validation and the account has rapid pass-through activity. It seeks one targeted detection step and one preventive measure that address the same underlying vulnerability. Which pairing is best?

  1. Diagnostic: Review identity verification, account funding and withdrawal beneficiaries together; safeguard: Verify occupancy representations and review high-risk investment-property indicators.
  2. Diagnostic: Compare application occupancy statements with objective property-use evidence; safeguard: Apply strong transaction authentication and beneficiary-change verification.
  3. Diagnostic: Review identity verification, account funding and withdrawal beneficiaries together; safeguard: Strengthen onboarding checks and monitor early-life unusual account turnover.
  4. Diagnostic: Verify stated earnings directly from reliable third-party employment records; safeguard: Strengthen onboarding checks and monitor early-life unusual account turnover.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The test addresses Fraudulent new bank account by targeting this observation: Onboarding identity records fail independent validation and the account has rapid pass-through activity. The accompanying safeguard—strengthen onboarding checks and monitor early-life unusual account turnover—counters the same opportunity, so both checking and prevention concern one cause.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The diagnostic correctly examines Fraudulent new bank account by having reviewers review identity verification, account funding and withdrawal beneficiaries together, but the safeguard is for Occupancy-misrepresented mortgage. That prevention step responds to a different mechanism: Misstated intended use can improperly obtain lending terms reserved for a primary residence.

B:

The evidence test relates to Occupancy-misrepresented mortgage, whereas the proposed safeguard protects against Financial-account takeover; neither directly resolves Fraudulent new bank account. Unlike the Occupancy-misrepresented mortgage test and Financial-account takeover safeguard, the investigation of Fraudulent new bank account requires reviewers to review identity verification, account funding and withdrawal beneficiaries together, followed by assessment of the matching control point.

D:

The proposed safeguard is relevant to Fraudulent new bank account, but the diagnostic tests Falsified borrower income rather than the identified anomaly. That test is aimed at records involving income evidence conflicts with independent employer or tax records; the specified case instead calls for reviewers to review identity verification, account funding and withdrawal beneficiaries together.

Question 271

Two separate review files raise different issues. File A: An issuer raises capital while omitting a material legal exposure from the offering disclosures. File B: An adviser recommends a highly leveraged product to a client whose documented profile indicates low risk tolerance and near-term cash needs. Which pairing accurately classifies both files?

  1. File A: Misleading offering prospectus; File B: Pump-and-dump stock promotion.
  2. File A: Excessive-account churning; File B: Unsuitable securities recommendation.
  3. File A: Unsuitable securities recommendation; File B: Misleading offering prospectus.
  4. File A: Misleading offering prospectus; File B: Unsuitable securities recommendation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

File A is Misleading offering prospectus because omission of decision-useful facts can mislead investors even where some published numbers are accurate, while File B is Unsuitable securities recommendation because a sale can be improper because the recommendation does not match the customer's circumstances, not because the product itself is inherently unlawful. The evidence chains differ: for File A, reviewers should compare offering statements with board records, counsel assessments and known liabilities; for File B, they should compare recommended product risk with the suitability and client-knowledge records.

Incorrect Answers

A:

File B is misidentified as Pump-and-dump stock promotion instead of Unsuitable securities recommendation. With the proposed pairing Misleading offering prospectus / Pump-and-dump stock promotion, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that internal legal memoranda identify major risks absent from investor materials, whereas File B shows that recommendation rationale conflicts with the client's recorded objectives and liquidity requirements. For these Misleading offering prospectus and Unsuitable securities recommendation files, choosing the pair Misleading offering prospectus / Pump-and-dump stock promotion would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

B:

File A is misidentified as Excessive-account churning instead of Misleading offering prospectus. With the proposed pairing Excessive-account churning / Unsuitable securities recommendation, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that internal legal memoranda identify major risks absent from investor materials, whereas File B shows that recommendation rationale conflicts with the client's recorded objectives and liquidity requirements. For these Misleading offering prospectus and Unsuitable securities recommendation files, choosing the pair Excessive-account churning / Unsuitable securities recommendation would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

C:

File A is misidentified as Unsuitable securities recommendation instead of Misleading offering prospectus; File B is misidentified as Misleading offering prospectus instead of Unsuitable securities recommendation. With the proposed pairing Unsuitable securities recommendation / Misleading offering prospectus, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that internal legal memoranda identify major risks absent from investor materials, whereas File B shows that recommendation rationale conflicts with the client's recorded objectives and liquidity requirements. For these Misleading offering prospectus and Unsuitable securities recommendation files, choosing the pair Unsuitable securities recommendation / Misleading offering prospectus would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

Question 272

Reviewers flag a possible lawful tax planning distinction issue. Their preliminary finding is: The chosen treatment is authorized by tax rules and appears transparently in the return. Which test would best confirm or refute the concern?

  1. Confirm statutory eligibility, election documentation and consistent filings.
  2. Trace beneficial control, functions and genuine commercial substance.
  3. Verify claimed costs against real supplier transactions and business purpose.
  4. Reconcile independent sales evidence with filed taxable income.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

For the Lawful tax planning distinction concern, the procedure tests source evidence behind this observation: The chosen treatment is authorized by tax rules and appears transparently in the return. This matters because tax avoidance or planning can lawfully reduce tax; evasion involves unlawful deception or concealment; independent corroboration is necessary before accepting any conclusion.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This comparison primarily addresses Sham offshore tax shelter, in which a paper structure intended to conceal taxable facts differs from lawful tax structuring with genuine substance; because the present question instead concerns Lawful tax planning distinction, reviewers should confirm statutory eligibility, election documentation and consistent filings rather than apply a check designed for Sham offshore tax shelter.

C:

This comparison primarily addresses Fabricated deductible business cost, in which a fictitious expense reduces reported taxable income without a genuine economic cost; because the present question instead concerns Lawful tax planning distinction, reviewers should confirm statutory eligibility, election documentation and consistent filings rather than apply a check designed for Fabricated deductible business cost.

D:

This comparison primarily addresses Unreported cash taxable income, in which knowingly concealing taxable receipts can constitute tax evasion rather than lawful tax planning; because the present question instead concerns Lawful tax planning distinction, reviewers should confirm statutory eligibility, election documentation and consistent filings rather than apply a check designed for Unreported cash taxable income.

Question 273

The case file describes the following: An exporter sells valuable goods to an overseas associate at an artificially low declared price. Which classification best explains the events?

  1. Trade under-invoicing
  2. Trade over-invoicing
  3. Cash-intensive front business
  4. Bulk currency courier

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Trade under-invoicing fits the facts because underpricing can move economic value to an offshore counterparty through an ostensibly normal sale; the distinguishing observation is that export records and comparable sale prices indicate substantial underpricing. To test this interpretation, a reviewer should reconcile trade invoices with shipping detail, customs declarations and market benchmarks.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Trade over-invoicing would involve a different sequence from Trade under-invoicing: inflated trade prices can transfer value across borders under cover of legitimate commerce. Unlike the rejected Trade over-invoicing label, the evidence concerns Trade under-invoicing, since export records and comparable sale prices indicate substantial underpricing; reviewers should reconcile trade invoices with shipping detail, customs declarations and market benchmarks.

C:

Cash-intensive front business would involve a different sequence from Trade under-invoicing: fictitious sales provide a plausible bookkeeping story for introducing criminal cash. Unlike the rejected Cash-intensive front business label, the evidence concerns Trade under-invoicing, since export records and comparable sale prices indicate substantial underpricing; reviewers should reconcile trade invoices with shipping detail, customs declarations and market benchmarks.

D:

Bulk currency courier would involve a different sequence from Trade under-invoicing: physical transportation can shift criminal cash between jurisdictions outside routine bank wires. Unlike the rejected Bulk currency courier label, the evidence concerns Trade under-invoicing, since export records and comparable sale prices indicate substantial underpricing; reviewers should reconcile trade invoices with shipping detail, customs declarations and market benchmarks.

Question 274

Two separate review files raise different issues. File A: A manufacturing visitor photographs restricted machine blueprints on a shop-floor tour. File B: A departing developer copies proprietary source repositories to an unauthorized personal cloud account. Which pairing accurately classifies both files?

  1. File A: Source-code repository exfiltration; File B: Printed blueprint removal.
  2. File A: Printed blueprint removal; File B: Supplier-access data theft.
  3. File A: Trade-secret client-list theft; File B: Source-code repository exfiltration.
  4. File A: Printed blueprint removal; File B: Source-code repository exfiltration.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

File A is Printed blueprint removal because optical capture can remove trade secrets without any network download event, while File B is Source-code repository exfiltration because confidential software is removed through insider access, not obtained from public sources. The evidence chains differ: for File A, reviewers should correlate tour permissions, camera monitoring and design-document custody; for File B, they should correlate repository clone logs with endpoint uploads and exit dates.

Incorrect Answers

A:

File A is misidentified as Source-code repository exfiltration instead of Printed blueprint removal; File B is misidentified as Printed blueprint removal instead of Source-code repository exfiltration. With the proposed pairing Source-code repository exfiltration / Printed blueprint removal, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that restricted-zone camera activity and later competitor designs align with visited equipment, whereas File B shows that large repository exports occur shortly before resignation from an unmanaged endpoint. For these Printed blueprint removal and Source-code repository exfiltration files, choosing the pair Source-code repository exfiltration / Printed blueprint removal would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

B:

File B is misidentified as Supplier-access data theft instead of Source-code repository exfiltration. With the proposed pairing Printed blueprint removal / Supplier-access data theft, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that restricted-zone camera activity and later competitor designs align with visited equipment, whereas File B shows that large repository exports occur shortly before resignation from an unmanaged endpoint. For these Printed blueprint removal and Source-code repository exfiltration files, choosing the pair Printed blueprint removal / Supplier-access data theft would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

C:

File A is misidentified as Trade-secret client-list theft instead of Printed blueprint removal. With the proposed pairing Trade-secret client-list theft / Source-code repository exfiltration, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that restricted-zone camera activity and later competitor designs align with visited equipment, whereas File B shows that large repository exports occur shortly before resignation from an unmanaged endpoint. For these Printed blueprint removal and Source-code repository exfiltration files, choosing the pair Trade-secret client-list theft / Source-code repository exfiltration would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

Question 275

The review team observes the following: Large repository exports occur shortly before resignation from an unmanaged endpoint. It seeks one targeted detection step and one preventive measure that address the same underlying vulnerability. Which pairing is best?

  1. Diagnostic: Compare CRM export histories with approved business uses and data loss alerts; safeguard: Limit code access by role and monitor unusual bulk downloads and external sharing.
  2. Diagnostic: Review visitor sponsorship, badge events and camera policy exceptions; safeguard: Prohibit unauthorized photography and escort visitors in sensitive production areas.
  3. Diagnostic: Correlate repository clone logs with endpoint uploads and exit dates; safeguard: Apply contractor screening and least-privilege physical and information access.
  4. Diagnostic: Correlate repository clone logs with endpoint uploads and exit dates; safeguard: Limit code access by role and monitor unusual bulk downloads and external sharing.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The test addresses Source-code repository exfiltration by targeting this observation: Large repository exports occur shortly before resignation from an unmanaged endpoint. The accompanying safeguard—limit code access by role and monitor unusual bulk downloads and external sharing—counters the same opportunity, so both checking and prevention concern one cause.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed safeguard is relevant to Source-code repository exfiltration, but the diagnostic tests Trade-secret client-list theft rather than the identified anomaly. That test is aimed at records involving bulk downloads and personal email forwarding of confidential price lists appear near departure; the specified case instead calls for reviewers to correlate repository clone logs with endpoint uploads and exit dates.

B:

The evidence test relates to Corporate espionage by infiltration, whereas the proposed safeguard protects against Printed blueprint removal; neither directly resolves Source-code repository exfiltration. Unlike the Corporate espionage by infiltration test and Printed blueprint removal safeguard, the investigation of Source-code repository exfiltration requires reviewers to correlate repository clone logs with endpoint uploads and exit dates, followed by assessment of the matching control point.

C:

The diagnostic correctly examines Source-code repository exfiltration by having reviewers correlate repository clone logs with endpoint uploads and exit dates, but the safeguard is for Corporate espionage by infiltration. That prevention step responds to a different mechanism: Covert acquisition of nonpublic secrets for competitive gain is espionage rather than ordinary market research.

Question 276

The review team observes the following: Identical invoices and loss photos recur in separate carriers' claim files. It seeks one targeted detection step and one preventive measure that address the same underlying vulnerability. Which pairing is best?

  1. Diagnostic: Review policy change history, consent evidence and beneficiary identities; safeguard: Use inter-insurer fraud sharing and duplicate-loss checks under privacy rules.
  2. Diagnostic: Compare crash records, medical claims and links among participants; safeguard: Use clear underwriting questions and verify material inconsistencies lawfully.
  3. Diagnostic: Cross-match claim dates, asset identifiers and prior paid settlements where lawful; safeguard: Use independent accident verification and network screening of repeat claimants.
  4. Diagnostic: Cross-match claim dates, asset identifiers and prior paid settlements where lawful; safeguard: Use inter-insurer fraud sharing and duplicate-loss checks under privacy rules.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The test addresses Duplicate casualty claims by targeting this observation: Identical invoices and loss photos recur in separate carriers' claim files. The accompanying safeguard—use inter-insurer fraud sharing and duplicate-loss checks under privacy rules—counters the same opportunity, so both checking and prevention concern one cause.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed safeguard is relevant to Duplicate casualty claims, but the diagnostic tests Fictitious beneficiary change rather than the identified anomaly. That test is aimed at records involving beneficiary forms fail signature or authentication checks and appear near claim filing; the specified case instead calls for reviewers to cross-match claim dates, asset identifiers and prior paid settlements where lawful.

B:

The evidence test relates to Staged vehicle collision claim, whereas the proposed safeguard protects against Concealed preexisting condition; neither directly resolves Duplicate casualty claims. Unlike the Staged vehicle collision claim test and Concealed preexisting condition safeguard, the investigation of Duplicate casualty claims requires reviewers to cross-match claim dates, asset identifiers and prior paid settlements where lawful, followed by assessment of the matching control point.

C:

The diagnostic correctly examines Duplicate casualty claims by having reviewers cross-match claim dates, asset identifiers and prior paid settlements where lawful, but the safeguard is for Staged vehicle collision claim. That prevention step responds to a different mechanism: A staged loss creates the insured event rather than merely exaggerating a genuine accident.

Question 277

A process owner is assessing safeguards for malicious browser extension. The mechanism is: Browser extensions can misuse broad page-access permissions without a classic email attachment. Which control addresses it most directly?

  1. Restrict extensions to reviewed software and apply least-privilege browser policies.
  2. Use bot mitigation, rate limits and anomalous-traffic detection.
  3. Patch exposed services and segment networks to limit automatic spread.
  4. Use number matching or phishing-resistant factors and alert on excessive prompts.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The control directly addresses the failure point in Malicious browser extension, since browser extensions can misuse broad page-access permissions without a classic email attachment. A subsequent independent review could inspect extension inventory, permissions and network destinations to identify exceptions that bypassed the safeguard.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Botnet-enabled account attacks rather than Malicious browser extension, because a botnet coordinates compromised machines to perform automated abuse at scale. Unlike the control for Botnet-enabled account attacks, the more direct design for Malicious browser extension is to restrict extensions to reviewed software and apply least-privilege browser policies; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

C:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Self-propagating network worm rather than Malicious browser extension, because a worm propagates autonomously; a conventional virus generally attaches to a host file or program. Unlike the control for Self-propagating network worm, the more direct design for Malicious browser extension is to restrict extensions to reviewed software and apply least-privilege browser policies; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

D:

This safeguard is directed primarily at MFA-push fatigue attack rather than Malicious browser extension, because repeated prompts exploit human approval fatigue rather than cracking the second factor. Unlike the control for MFA-push fatigue attack, the more direct design for Malicious browser extension is to restrict extensions to reviewed software and apply least-privilege browser policies; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

Question 278

The review team observes the following: Similar amounts, dates and vendors appear under multiple invoice references. It seeks one targeted detection step and one preventive measure that address the same underlying vulnerability. Which pairing is best?

  1. Diagnostic: Run normalized duplicate-payment checks across invoice number, amount and payee; safeguard: Prevent repeated invoice processing using duplicate controls and independent exception review.
  2. Diagnostic: Compare invoices, delivery locations and asset registers with authorized requisitions; safeguard: Tie service payments to verifiable milestones and independent acceptance.
  3. Diagnostic: Aggregate related purchases by supplier, requester and time window; safeguard: Enforce purchase-order approval tied to documented business purpose and receiving.
  4. Diagnostic: Corroborate contract deliverables with employees and independent project evidence; safeguard: Prevent repeated invoice processing using duplicate controls and independent exception review.
  5. Diagnostic: Run normalized duplicate-payment checks across invoice number, amount and payee; safeguard: Apply authorization thresholds to combined requirements, not artificial invoice fragments.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The test addresses Duplicate vendor-invoice payment by targeting this observation: Similar amounts, dates and vendors appear under multiple invoice references. The accompanying safeguard—prevent repeated invoice processing using duplicate controls and independent exception review—counters the same opportunity, so both checking and prevention concern one cause.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The evidence test relates to Personal purchases billed as business, whereas the proposed safeguard protects against Phantom consulting fees; neither directly resolves Duplicate vendor-invoice payment. Unlike the Personal purchases billed as business test and Phantom consulting fees safeguard, the investigation of Duplicate vendor-invoice payment requires reviewers to run normalized duplicate-payment checks across invoice number, amount and payee, followed by assessment of the matching control point.

C:

The evidence test relates to Split procurement invoices, whereas the proposed safeguard protects against Personal purchases billed as business; neither directly resolves Duplicate vendor-invoice payment. Unlike the Split procurement invoices test and Personal purchases billed as business safeguard, the investigation of Duplicate vendor-invoice payment requires reviewers to run normalized duplicate-payment checks across invoice number, amount and payee, followed by assessment of the matching control point.

D:

The proposed safeguard is relevant to Duplicate vendor-invoice payment, but the diagnostic tests Phantom consulting fees rather than the identified anomaly. That test is aimed at records involving payments recur despite missing work products, timesheets or meeting records; the specified case instead calls for reviewers to run normalized duplicate-payment checks across invoice number, amount and payee.

E:

The diagnostic correctly examines Duplicate vendor-invoice payment by having reviewers run normalized duplicate-payment checks across invoice number, amount and payee, but the safeguard is for Split procurement invoices. That prevention step responds to a different mechanism: Splitting evades approval controls that would apply to the whole purchase.

Question 279

The organization wants to prevent source-code repository exfiltration. Its risk assessment describes: Confidential software is removed through insider access, not obtained from public sources. What targeted safeguard should it prioritize?

  1. Restrict sensitive bulk exports and revoke access promptly at departure.
  2. Time-limit vendor credentials and enforce scoped access with periodic recertification.
  3. Limit code access by role and monitor unusual bulk downloads and external sharing.
  4. Prohibit unauthorized photography and escort visitors in sensitive production areas.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The control directly addresses the failure point in Source-code repository exfiltration, since confidential software is removed through insider access, not obtained from public sources. A subsequent independent review could correlate repository clone logs with endpoint uploads and exit dates to identify exceptions that bypassed the safeguard.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Trade-secret client-list theft rather than Source-code repository exfiltration, because protected business information can be misappropriated even without physical property theft. Unlike the control for Trade-secret client-list theft, the more direct design for Source-code repository exfiltration is to limit code access by role and monitor unusual bulk downloads and external sharing; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

B:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Supplier-access data theft rather than Source-code repository exfiltration, because compromised or misused partner access can become a route for proprietary-data loss. Unlike the control for Supplier-access data theft, the more direct design for Source-code repository exfiltration is to limit code access by role and monitor unusual bulk downloads and external sharing; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

D:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Printed blueprint removal rather than Source-code repository exfiltration, because optical capture can remove trade secrets without any network download event. Unlike the control for Printed blueprint removal, the more direct design for Source-code repository exfiltration is to limit code access by role and monitor unusual bulk downloads and external sharing; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

Question 280

The review team observes the following: The demanded benefit follows an explicit threat to deny a lawful service. It seeks one targeted detection step and one preventive measure that address the same underlying vulnerability. Which pairing is best?

  1. Diagnostic: Preserve the demand trail and compare application status to statutory requirements; safeguard: Apply third-party diligence to charitable contributions connected to public or procurement officials.
  2. Diagnostic: Trace donation beneficiaries and governance to tender decisions and communications; safeguard: Require timely conflict disclosure and recusal from related decisions.
  3. Diagnostic: Preserve the demand trail and compare application status to statutory requirements; safeguard: Use transparent service criteria and protected independent complaint channels.
  4. Diagnostic: Compare gift registers, travel records and award dates for decision makers; safeguard: Use transparent service criteria and protected independent complaint channels.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The test addresses Economic extortion demand by targeting this observation: The demanded benefit follows an explicit threat to deny a lawful service. The accompanying safeguard—use transparent service criteria and protected independent complaint channels—counters the same opportunity, so both checking and prevention concern one cause.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The diagnostic correctly examines Economic extortion demand by having reviewers preserve the demand trail and compare application status to statutory requirements, but the safeguard is for Inflated charitable donation conduit. That prevention step responds to a different mechanism: An apparent donation may disguise a benefit routed to someone able to influence business.

B:

The evidence test relates to Inflated charitable donation conduit, whereas the proposed safeguard protects against Undisclosed supplier ownership; neither directly resolves Economic extortion demand. Unlike the Inflated charitable donation conduit test and Undisclosed supplier ownership safeguard, the investigation of Economic extortion demand requires reviewers to preserve the demand trail and compare application status to statutory requirements, followed by assessment of the matching control point.

D:

The proposed safeguard is relevant to Economic extortion demand, but the diagnostic tests Lavish hospitality influence rather than the identified anomaly. That test is aimed at records involving benefits rise immediately before procurement decisions involving the sponsor; the specified case instead calls for reviewers to preserve the demand trail and compare application status to statutory requirements.

Certified Fraud Examiner - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes (CFE - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes) Practice Tests