AAPC CPC (Certified Professional Coder) Practice Test 73

Question 720

An established pregnancy receives interval biometric measurements to evaluate growth trend. Which modality and method fit these imaging details?

  1. Follow-up fetal growth ultrasound
  2. Transabdominal cervical-length assessment
  3. First-trimester dating ultrasound
  4. Second-trimester detailed anatomic survey

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Growth follow-up compares fetal size over time rather than performing the full first structural survey. Indication and completed elements control coding.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The distinguishing evidence for Transabdominal cervical-length assessment would be focused maternal cervical imaging rather than detailed fetal anatomy, nuchal translucency, dating, or growth calculations; the described patient or procedure has interval fetal biometric growth measurement, not those features.

C:

First-trimester evaluation uses early fetal measurements and pregnancy location; it differs from later detailed structural survey or interval growth testing; the scenario instead describes interval fetal biometric growth measurement, without demonstrating early pregnancy location and dating measurements.

D:

Detailed fetal anatomy evaluation surveys structures beyond simple dating or limited follow-up; the actual documentation must support the detailed exam; the operative or visit note documents interval fetal biometric growth measurement instead of structured comprehensive fetal anatomic assessment.

Question 721

A particular donor red-cell unit is tested or electronically evaluated for compatibility with the recipient. What laboratory method has been performed?

  1. Post-transfusion hemoglobin measurement
  2. ABO and Rh typing
  3. Red-cell antibody screen
  4. Compatibility crossmatch

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Crossmatching links a specific product to the intended recipient under applicable criteria. It is distinct from a general antibody screen without a donor unit.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The Post-transfusion hemoglobin measurement choice presumes measurement of hemoglobin after transfusion rather than ABO/Rh identification, antigen-antibody compatibility, screening, or DAT; the record instead establishes compatibility assessment for a designated donor unit, making that alternative an inaccurate description.

B:

Blood typing identifies red-cell antigens that affect compatibility; it does not directly test serum for all unexpected antibodies or crossmatch a specific unit; the distinction is the record’s compatibility assessment for a designated donor unit versus the alternative of determination of recipient ABO group and RhD type.

C:

Antibody screening detects alloantibodies beyond ABO grouping; A negative screen is not the same as performing a particular donor-unit crossmatch; the distinction is the record’s compatibility assessment for a designated donor unit versus the alternative of screening plasma for irregular erythrocyte antibodies.

Question 722

Cytotoxic medication is administered intravenously in a first documented infusion session. What administration or treatment category best fits?

  1. Initial chemotherapy IV infusion
  2. Subcutaneous antineoplastic drug administration
  3. Implanted venous port maintenance
  4. Sequential chemotherapy infusion

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Chemotherapy administration codes follow their own hierarchy and differ from ordinary therapeutic drug infusion. The drug and administration technique must support classification.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Subcutaneous antineoplastic drug administration involves antineoplastic agent delivered through subcutaneous injection rather than intravenous initial, sequential, or push administration or port maintenance; the note describes primary timed infusion of antineoplastic agent instead, changing the applicable classification.

C:

Port maintenance concerns device patency and access, not administration of chemotherapy; if performed solely as part of another service, bundling rules affect reporting; the chart records primary timed infusion of antineoplastic agent rather than isolated flushing of implanted central access port.

D:

Sequential infusion represents an additional substance or sequence under applicable rules; A continued bag of the same substance is not automatically a new sequential service; this clinical evidence establishes primary timed infusion of antineoplastic agent, not second separately administered chemotherapy substance.

Question 723

A nurse spends extensive minutes checking in and educating a patient before a shorter physician visit. Which choice satisfies the E/M rules for these facts?

  1. Exclude separately billed procedure time
  2. Total eligible same-day physician time
  3. Exclude clinical staff time from clinician E/M time
  4. Duration of room occupancy

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The time used to select a physician/QHP office E/M code is qualifying clinician time, not generic clinical staff time, unless a code specifically provides otherwise.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Time for a separately reportable procedure should not be double-counted toward selection of the office E/M level; only qualifying nonduplicated physician or QHP time is considered; procedure minutes carved out from E/M total is not recorded; the evidence points to nursing support minutes outside clinician time calculation.

B:

For eligible office E/M codes, total physician or qualified professional time on the date may determine level; distinct qualifying activities may be counted within the code rules; the chart records nursing support minutes outside clinician time calculation rather than physician work accumulated on encounter date.

D:

Duration of room occupancy is supported by documentation of total minutes a patient was present in the facility, including waiting, unrelated to clinician qualifying E/M time; here the decisive finding is nursing support minutes outside clinician time calculation; the defining work for this distractor is absent.

Question 724

A patient with type 2 diabetes has persistent high glucose readings and the clinician expressly assesses diabetes with hyperglycemia, changing treatment. Which distinction is supported by the signed assessment?

  1. Type 1 diabetes because the glucose level is elevated
  2. Type 2 diabetes with the documented hyperglycemia manifestation
  3. Hyperglycemia as an isolated symptom with diabetes omitted
  4. Type 2 diabetes without any complication

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The provider establishes hyperglycemia as a diabetes manifestation. The coding should reflect the documented complication, not an uncomplicated diabetes category.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Hyperglycemia can occur with either diabetes type. The chart specifically identifies type 2 diabetes, not autoimmune type 1 disease.

C:

The provider explicitly links hyperglycemia to the known diabetes. A symptom-only classification would miss the confirmed chronic disease.

D:

The clinician identifies and manages hyperglycemia. Coding the case as uncomplicated would discard a documented manifestation.

Question 725

A prescribed medication is taken correctly but produces a documented harmful reaction. Which reporting principle follows from this assessment?

  1. Underdosing
  2. Toxic effect of a nonmedicinal substance
  3. Poisoning
  4. Adverse effect

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

An adverse effect arises from correctly administered medication; coding typically identifies the manifestation and then the drug adverse-effect classification as directed. It is not an overdose.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Underdosing means less medication taken than prescribed, and the reason may require additional coding; it should not be mislabeled as toxicity from excess medication; the controlling finding is reaction to correctly used medication, which is distinct from medication taken below prescribed amount.

B:

This alternative, Toxic effect of a nonmedicinal substance, concerns harm from exposure to a nonmedicinal chemical rather than an adverse effect, overdose, underdosing, or sequela of an injury; the alternative is not supported by the documented reaction to correctly used medication.

C:

Poisoning covers overdose, wrong substance, wrong route, and certain errors; the poisoning code generally leads the sequence before manifestations; this is not an ordinary adverse effect; the controlling finding is reaction to correctly used medication, which is distinct from excessive or incorrect drug administration.

Question 726

A suspicious papule is sampled by shaving a thin piece from its surface solely for histologic diagnosis. Which listed service reflects the actual surgical technique?

  1. Tangential skin biopsy
  2. Excisional skin biopsy
  3. Incisional skin biopsy
  4. Shave removal of a clinically benign lesion

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Tangential biopsy obtains a superficial specimen for diagnosis, without asserting that the lesion was therapeutically removed in full. Technique and purpose distinguish it from punch or incisional sampling.

Incorrect Answers

B:

An excisional biopsy removes the lesion completely for diagnostic evaluation; determine whether the actual service is reported through excision rather than a separate biopsy code based on current CPT instructions; the chart records superficial diagnostic specimen obtained tangentially rather than complete diagnostic removal of small lesion.

C:

An incisional biopsy deliberately samples a portion of a larger lesion rather than attempting complete therapeutic excision; the surgeon's documented diagnostic intent is decisive; to select this alternative the report would need partial elliptical tissue sampling for diagnosis, whereas it identifies superficial diagnostic specimen obtained tangentially.

D:

Shave removal of a clinically benign lesion refers to surface removal for treatment without the documentation that tissue sampling is performed as a diagnostic biopsy, but the documented clinical work is superficial diagnostic specimen obtained tangentially; choosing it would misclassify the documented encounter.

Question 727

A stable nondisplaced radius fracture receives definitive immobilization without reduction maneuvers. Which completed intervention does this operative description support?

  1. Percutaneous skeletal fixation
  2. Closed fracture treatment with manipulation
  3. Closed fracture treatment without manipulation
  4. Removal of orthopedic hardware after healed fracture

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Closed fracture care without manipulation treats an already acceptably aligned fracture. If only temporary stabilization was provided pending referral, the fracture-care billing analysis changes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Percutaneous fixation uses hardware passed through small skin openings, differing from exposed open reduction; specific fracture location and approach govern code selection; the chart records definitive nonsurgical management with no reduction rather than skeletal pins placed percutaneously across fracture.

B:

Manipulation denotes active reduction of fracture alignment without surgically exposing the fracture; splinting alone cannot substitute for the reduction documented; the operative or visit note documents definitive nonsurgical management with no reduction instead of closed reduction of displaced fracture fragments.

D:

The Removal of orthopedic hardware after healed fracture choice presumes elective extraction of implants after a previous fracture healed, rather than current reduction or fixation of a fracture; the record instead establishes definitive nonsurgical management with no reduction, making that alternative an inaccurate description.

Question 728

A thoracoscope visualizes the pleura and a piece of abnormal pleural tissue is excised for diagnosis. Which reported approach and procedure combination is described?

  1. Tube thoracostomy
  2. Chemical pleurodesis
  3. Thoracoscopic pleural decortication
  4. Thoracoscopic pleural biopsy

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Video-assisted pleural sampling is direct endoscopic tissue acquisition. It is distinct from thoracentesis fluid analysis or blind needle drainage.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Tube thoracostomy establishes continued pleural drainage; it is not a one-time aspiration or chemical treatment to fuse pleural surfaces; the scenario instead describes endoscopic excision of pleural tissue sample, without demonstrating indwelling chest tube placed into pleural space.

B:

Pleurodesis aims to adhere visceral and parietal pleura and reduce recurrent effusion; catheter drainage may facilitate it but is not the defining treatment; what was actually documented is endoscopic excision of pleural tissue sample, not the different evidence of sclerosing agent used to obliterate pleural space.

C:

In Thoracoscopic pleural decortication, the work centers on surgical stripping of restrictive fibrous peel from the lung, not aspiration, drainage tube insertion, pleurodesis, or biopsy; instead, the report records endoscopic excision of pleural tissue sample, which supports a different classification.

Question 729

Laparoscopic instruments reduce a midline abdominal wall hernia and secure mesh to reinforce closure. How should the clinician’s described operative work be identified?

  1. Laparoscopic ventral hernia repair
  2. Open inguinal hernia repair
  3. Laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair
  4. Incisional ventral hernia repair

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Minimally invasive ventral repair uses intraperitoneal or preperitoneal access. Current CPT choices require more than assuming the approach alone selects a unique code.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Open inguinal repair treats a groin defect by an anterior approach; side, age, recurrence, and operative findings govern classification rather than equating it with ventral hernia; the scenario instead describes minimally invasive reinforcement of abdominal wall defect, without demonstrating direct open repair of groin hernia.

C:

Laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair corresponds to minimally invasive repair of a groin hernia rather than open inguinal, umbilical, or ventral repair; the record specifies minimally invasive reinforcement of abdominal wall defect. Those details establish different classifications.

D:

An incisional hernia occurs in a prior abdominal wall incision; it differs from primary umbilical or inguinal hernia, and current defect-size rules must be reviewed; the scenario instead describes minimally invasive reinforcement of abdominal wall defect, without demonstrating repair of defect at previous laparotomy scar.

Question 730

Direct uterine endoscopy identifies and removes a discrete endometrial polyp. How should this completed operation be classified?

  1. Dilation and curettage
  2. Office endometrial biopsy
  3. Hysteroscopic endometrial polypectomy
  4. Hysteroscopic submucosal myomectomy

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Hysteroscopic polypectomy uses visualization to excise an intracavitary lesion. It differs from blind sampling or global endometrial ablation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

D&C removes intrauterine contents or tissue more broadly than a small office biopsy; specific clinical purpose controls code choice; what was actually documented is targeted endoscopic removal of uterine polyp, not the different evidence of uterine cavity evacuation after cervical dilation.

B:

Endometrial biopsy retrieves diagnostic mucosal tissue without fully curetting the uterine cavity; it is not operative polyp removal; the reported work involves targeted endoscopic removal of uterine polyp and does not establish limited suction sample of endometrial lining.

D:

Although Hysteroscopic submucosal myomectomy may sound adjacent, it denotes resection of an intracavitary fibroid under hysteroscopic vision rather than polyp removal, ablation, biopsy, or blind curettage; this record documents targeted endoscopic removal of uterine polyp, which is distinct from that alternative.

Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Practice Tests