AAPC CPC (Certified Professional Coder) Practice Test 75

Question 740

A depleted pacemaker pulse generator is replaced while functioning existing leads are preserved. Which anatomical operation is indicated by the described work?

  1. New permanent pacemaker system
  2. Temporary transvenous pacemaker placement
  3. Pacemaker generator exchange
  4. Pacemaker lead revision

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Generator replacement swaps the pulse-producing unit without necessarily replacing leads. Lead work must be specifically documented if present.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Initial pacemaker implantation establishes new generator and lead components; identify chambers and approach; it differs from changing an exhausted generator only; to select this alternative the report would need first-time generator and pacing lead implantation, whereas it identifies exchange of battery generator with preserved leads.

B:

Temporary transvenous pacemaker placement involves short-term pacing lead and external generator rather than a newly implanted permanent system or its revision or exchange; the note describes exchange of battery generator with preserved leads instead, changing the applicable classification.

D:

Lead revision corrects an existing electrode problem; it is not equivalent to a full system implant or battery exchange; the operative or visit note documents exchange of battery generator with preserved leads instead of repositioning of malfunctioning pacing lead.

Question 741

Small mucosal samples are taken from a suspicious patch using forceps during colonoscopy. Which surgical service corresponds to the documented operation?

  1. Colonoscopy with snare polypectomy
  2. Colonoscopy with lesion ablation
  3. Colonoscopy with forceps biopsy
  4. Colonoscopy with endoscopic mucosal resection

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Forceps biopsy samples tissue for diagnosis and is different from resecting a polyp with a snare. A diagnostic look is generally integral to the tissue procedure.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Snare removal resects polyp tissue with a loop device; the selected technique, not polyp diameter alone, distinguishes it from forceps biopsy or ablation; the controlling finding is colonoscopic mucosal biopsy by forceps, which is distinct from mechanical snare excision of colonic polyp.

B:

Endoscopic destruction removes tissue by ablative energy rather than snare excision; the actual tool and method are necessary for coding; this clinical evidence establishes colonoscopic mucosal biopsy by forceps, not ablation of colonic lesion without resection.

D:

The required element for Colonoscopy with endoscopic mucosal resection is documented submucosal lift and specialized mucosal resection of a colon lesion, distinct from simple forceps sampling, snare polypectomy, or ablation; what is described is colonoscopic mucosal biopsy by forceps, without evidence for the alternative feature.

Question 742

A needle passes through the maternal abdomen into amniotic cavity to obtain fluid for testing. Which coded-service concept best represents the surgery actually performed?

  1. Umbilical artery Doppler surveillance
  2. Fetal biophysical profile
  3. Amniocentesis
  4. Fetal nonstress test

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Amniocentesis samples amniotic fluid and may involve ultrasound guidance under specific code rules. It is not placental chorionic villus biopsy.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Umbilical artery Doppler surveillance is supported by documentation of Doppler measurement of fetal-placental arterial flow instead of fetal tracing, ultrasound biophysical scoring, or invasive genetic sampling; here the decisive finding is needle aspiration of amniotic fluid; the defining work for this distractor is absent.

B:

A BPP evaluates multiple fetal well-being parameters, sometimes combined with NST; it is more comprehensive than a standalone nonstress tracing; the operative or visit note documents needle aspiration of amniotic fluid instead of multiparameter fetal well-being evaluation by ultrasound.

D:

An NST assesses fetal heart response without contraction challenge; interpretation and performed components determine whether a biophysical profile was performed instead; what was actually documented is needle aspiration of amniotic fluid, not the different evidence of external fetal heart monitoring with spontaneous activity.

Question 743

Small holes are drilled through skull so a chronic subdural hematoma can be evacuated. What is the most accurate term for the performed procedure?

  1. Burr-hole drainage of subdural collection
  2. Stereotactic brain needle biopsy
  3. Craniotomy for brain tumor resection
  4. Evacuation of acute epidural hematoma

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Burr-hole drainage accesses a collection through limited trephinations. It is not the same as a craniotomy requiring a raised bone flap.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Stereotactic biopsy is targeted diagnostic sampling using precise localization; it differs from a full craniotomy or purely endoscopic ventricular inspection; the chart records limited skull openings to evacuate subdural fluid rather than coordinate-guided needle sample of deep brain lesion.

C:

Craniotomy provides broad access through a bone flap and permits definitive tumor removal; it is distinct from small stereotactic diagnostic sampling; the documented detail of limited skull openings to evacuate subdural fluid prevents classifying it as skull bone flap opening for brain tumor excision.

D:

Although Evacuation of acute epidural hematoma may sound adjacent, it denotes craniotomy or burr-hole evacuation of blood outside the dura rather than a documented subdural collection or brain-tumor biopsy or resection; this record documents limited skull openings to evacuate subdural fluid, which is distinct from that alternative.

Question 744

Contrast is injected into a knee joint to outline internal structures during imaging. What diagnostic imaging service does this record describe?

  1. Biliary cholangiography
  2. Direct joint arthrography
  3. Myelography
  4. Fluoroscopic voiding cystourethrogram

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Arthrography studies a joint cavity with introduced contrast. It differs from angiography of blood vessels or imaging of the bile ducts.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Cholangiography studies the bile-duct system; the access approach and whether an endoscopic intervention occurs determine service reporting; the distinction is the record’s contrast instilled directly into synovial joint versus the alternative of contrast delineation of biliary tree.

C:

Myelography images the spinal CSF space after intrathecal contrast; it is not an ordinary MRI spine or direct joint injection; the patient record supports contrast instilled directly into synovial joint rather than the alternative finding of intrathecal contrast study of spinal canal.

D:

In Fluoroscopic voiding cystourethrogram, the work centers on retrograde filling of the bladder with contrast during voiding rather than imaging biliary, uterine, spinal, or articular spaces; instead, the report records contrast instilled directly into synovial joint, which supports a different classification.

Question 745

Genomic copy-number gains and losses are evaluated across chromosomes at high resolution. What is the appropriate designation for this reported analysis?

  1. Conventional karyotype
  2. Chromosomal microarray
  3. Quantitative gene-expression RT-PCR
  4. Single-gene sequence analysis

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Microarray testing detects copy-number changes, differing from traditional visual chromosome karyotyping and selected point-mutation sequencing.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Karyotyping visualizes chromosome number and large structural rearrangements; it is not a high-resolution microarray or direct gene sequencing test; what was actually documented is high-resolution genomic copy-number survey, not the different evidence of microscopic metaphase chromosome analysis.

C:

The required element for Quantitative gene-expression RT-PCR is measurement of RNA transcript abundance rather than DNA sequence, multigene panel, microarray copy-number, or chromosome karyotyping; what is described is high-resolution genomic copy-number survey, without evidence for the alternative feature.

D:

Single-gene molecular analysis targets one specified locus rather than a broad panel or chromosomal copy-number assay; the methodology determines code assignment; the scenario instead describes high-resolution genomic copy-number survey, without demonstrating sequencing of one named genetic locus.

Question 746

An ambulatory device stores ECG strips when the patient triggers it during episodic palpitations. Which medicine service is represented by these facts?

  1. Electrocardiogram interpretation
  2. Patient-activated event monitor
  3. Exercise treadmill stress testing
  4. Holter monitor analysis

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Event monitoring targets intermittent symptoms through triggered recording. It is not the same as continuous Holter data over every minute.

Incorrect Answers

A:

ECG interpretation is a professional diagnostic component, distinct from acquiring the tracing or prolonged ambulatory rhythm monitoring; reporting depends on the component furnished; this clinical evidence establishes intermittent symptom-triggered rhythm recording, not interpretation of standard resting ECG recording.

C:

The required element for Exercise treadmill stress testing is provoked cardiac stress assessment using exercise rather than resting ECG, ambulatory rhythm monitoring, or echocardiography; what is described is intermittent symptom-triggered rhythm recording, without evidence for the alternative feature.

D:

Holter monitoring supplies continuous ECG recording and analysis, unlike an intermittent patient-activated event record; the monitoring duration and components matter; the chart records intermittent symptom-triggered rhythm recording rather than continuous multihour ambulatory ECG recording.

Question 747

A physician completes a long counseling-heavy visit with low MDM and documents the total eligible time. Which choice satisfies the E/M rules for these facts?

  1. Exclude clinical staff time from clinician E/M time
  2. Duration of room occupancy
  3. Time-based level versus MDM
  4. Total eligible same-day physician time

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Where a code family permits it, office E/M level may be selected by either qualifying total time or MDM, whichever appropriately supports the service. Do not add criteria from both methods mechanically.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The time used to select a physician/QHP office E/M code is qualifying clinician time, not generic clinical staff time, unless a code specifically provides otherwise; the patient record supports eligible documented time supports level independently of MDM rather than the alternative finding of nursing support minutes outside clinician time calculation.

B:

Duration of room occupancy is supported by documentation of total minutes a patient was present in the facility, including waiting, unrelated to clinician qualifying E/M time; here the decisive finding is eligible documented time supports level independently of MDM; the defining work for this distractor is absent.

D:

For eligible office E/M codes, total physician or qualified professional time on the date may determine level; distinct qualifying activities may be counted within the code rules; the chart records eligible documented time supports level independently of MDM rather than physician work accumulated on encounter date.

Question 748

For a Medicare fee-for-service test expected to be denied as not reasonable and necessary, staff obtain the beneficiary’s ABN signature only after the service has been completed. Which compliance conclusion is sound?

  1. The practice should automatically bill the beneficiary without reviewing coverage
  2. The late ABN becomes effective because the patient signed it
  3. Modifier GA may be added solely because any signed ABN exists
  4. The after-service ABN is not a valid advance notice for shifting liability

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

An ABN intended to transfer potential financial liability must be issued and completed before furnishing the relevant service. A retrospective signature does not cure late notice.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Potential patient liability depends on the coverage determination and valid notice requirements; automatic direct billing is not justified by a late form.

B:

A signature after the event does not meet the purpose or timing requirement of advance beneficiary notice under Medicare rules.

C:

GA depends on a valid waiver process. An invalid after-the-fact notice is not sufficient support for representing that proper advance notice was obtained.

Question 749

A healing fracture receives routine cast adjustment after definitive acute management. Which coding principle governs this situation?

  1. External cause mechanism
  2. Subsequent injury encounter
  3. Initial injury encounter
  4. Injury sequela classification

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A subsequent injury encounter generally reflects routine care during healing. It does not describe a new trauma or an unrelated late residual effect.

Incorrect Answers

A:

External-cause codes can describe how an injury happened when applicable; they do not substitute for the code identifying the nature of the injury; the operative or visit note documents healing-phase follow-up of injury instead of mechanism of the traumatic event.

C:

Injury seventh-character A often means active treatment, not necessarily the patient's first visit; timing alone cannot establish subsequent-healing status; the distinction is the record’s healing-phase follow-up of injury versus the alternative of active treatment phase of injury.

D:

Injury sequela classification corresponds to residual effect after the acute injury and routine healing phase have ended, not active or subsequent healing encounters or circumstance codes; the record specifies healing-phase follow-up of injury. Those details establish different classifications.

Question 750

The surgeon removes breast tissue without the documented axillary dissection that characterizes a modified radical operation. What intervention should be recognized from this operative detail?

  1. Removal of a ruptured breast implant
  2. Simple mastectomy
  3. Breast lumpectomy
  4. Modified radical mastectomy

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A simple or total mastectomy removes the breast but not a formal axillary lymphadenectomy as part of that service. Documentation of nodal work matters.

Incorrect Answers

A:

In Removal of a ruptured breast implant, the work centers on explantation of a prosthetic breast implant rather than sampling or removing native breast tissue; instead, the report records total breast removal without formal axillary dissection, which supports a different classification.

C:

Breast-conserving excision removes a lesion rather than the entire breast; margin evaluation and sentinel-node work are separate clinical decisions; the documented detail of total breast removal without formal axillary dissection prevents classifying it as limited breast tissue excision preserving breast.

D:

A modified radical operation includes formal axillary lymph-node surgery with mastectomy; it should not be reduced to a breast-only excision; what was actually documented is total breast removal without formal axillary dissection, not the different evidence of breast removal combined with axillary lymphadenectomy.

Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Practice Tests