AAPC CPC (Certified Professional Coder) Practice Test 71

Question 700

A patient with a mature synthetic dialysis graft develops acute thrombosis. A surgeon opens the graft and removes the obstructing clot, preserving the existing conduit; no new graft is placed. Which procedure concept is documented?

  1. Balloon angioplasty of an access stenosis without thrombectomy
  2. Thrombectomy of the existing dialysis access graft
  3. Initial insertion of a synthetic arteriovenous dialysis graft
  4. Creation of a native autogenous dialysis fistula

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The operation removes clot from a previously implanted conduit. It is a restoration of patency rather than creation of a new synthetic access bridge.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Angioplasty dilates a narrowed access segment but does not itself describe the surgical extraction of an obstructing graft thrombus documented here.

C:

A new prosthetic conduit would be implanted to connect an artery and vein. The original graft remains in place after clot extraction.

D:

A native fistula directly connects the patient’s own artery and vein, whereas the documented access is an existing prosthetic graft.

Question 701

A separate significant complaint is evaluated and is not routinely associated with the main confirmed disorder. What documentation rule controls the classification?

  1. Integral symptom
  2. Incidental finding
  3. Rule-out diagnosis in inpatient discharge coding
  4. Unrelated symptom

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A nonintegral symptom may be coded in addition to an established diagnosis when it receives attention. A separate clinical reason must be evident, not inferred.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Symptoms integral to a confirmed disease generally are not separately coded unless a guideline or code instruction requires otherwise; the clinical relationship and documentation matter; the reported work involves independently assessed nonintegral symptom and does not establish symptom routinely included in confirmed diagnosis.

B:

Incidental abnormalities need not be reported solely because they appear in the report; code selection should reflect clinical relevance and the reason for the encounter; unrelated incidental finding without management is not recorded; the evidence points to independently assessed nonintegral symptom.

C:

Rule-out diagnosis in inpatient discharge coding reflects an uncertain diagnosis retained as probable at the end of a qualifying inpatient stay, not the outpatient certainty convention, whereas the clinical note identifies independently assessed nonintegral symptom; the different evidence changes the classification.

Question 702

A localized breast lesion is excised with surrounding normal tissue while the remainder of breast is preserved. What kind of surgical work has been documented?

  1. Modified radical mastectomy
  2. Core needle breast biopsy
  3. Breast lumpectomy
  4. Removal of a ruptured breast implant

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Breast-conserving excision removes a lesion rather than the entire breast. Margin evaluation and sentinel-node work are separate clinical decisions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A modified radical operation includes formal axillary lymph-node surgery with mastectomy; it should not be reduced to a breast-only excision; what was actually documented is limited breast tissue excision preserving breast, not the different evidence of breast removal combined with axillary lymphadenectomy.

B:

Core biopsy acquires diagnostic breast tissue without full excision of the lesion; the imaging modality and placement of a localization device may affect reporting; the distinction is the record’s limited breast tissue excision preserving breast versus the alternative of percutaneous diagnostic breast tissue cores.

D:

In Removal of a ruptured breast implant, the work centers on explantation of a prosthetic breast implant rather than sampling or removing native breast tissue; instead, the report records limited breast tissue excision preserving breast, which supports a different classification.

Question 703

A pin through bone permits continuous traction for a long-bone fracture. Which surgical service corresponds to the documented operation?

  1. Joint strapping
  2. Skeletal traction
  3. Short-arm cast application
  4. Long-arm cast application

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Skeletal traction transmits pulling force through bone-mounted hardware, not simply a taped skin traction setup or an ordinary cast.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Strapping supports a region with tape or similar material rather than casting it in rigid circumferential material; documentation of method matters; the distinction is the record’s traction force applied through skeletal pin versus the alternative of support by therapeutic adhesive strapping.

C:

A cast surrounds the limb with rigid immobilization; whether separate application is payable depends on who provides definitive fracture treatment and payer rules; rigid circumferential forearm immobilization is not recorded; the evidence points to traction force applied through skeletal pin.

D:

Long-arm cast application involves circumferential immobilization extending above the elbow rather than a short-arm cast, wrist splint, strapping, or traction pin; the note describes traction force applied through skeletal pin instead, changing the applicable classification.

Question 704

A flexible scope reaches the segmental bronchi and saline is instilled and recovered for testing. Which procedure name fits the documented anatomical target and method?

  1. Diagnostic bronchoscopy only
  2. Bronchoscopy with cytology brushings
  3. Bronchoscopy with lavage
  4. Transbronchial needle aspiration

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Bronchoalveolar lavage samples material from distal airways by instilling and retrieving fluid. It is different from simply looking through a scope or taking tissue cores.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A diagnostic bronchoscopy entails endoscopic airway examination alone; it generally is not separately counted when integral to a more extensive bronchoscopic service; the scenario instead describes endoscopic bronchial fluid instillation and recovery, without demonstrating visual bronchoscopic inspection without sampling.

B:

The required element for Bronchoscopy with cytology brushings is cellular sampling using a bronchial brushing device instead of forceps tissue biopsy, needle aspiration, or wash/lavage; what is described is endoscopic bronchial fluid instillation and recovery, without evidence for the alternative feature.

D:

Needle aspiration traverses the bronchial wall to collect cytology or tissue; the documented imaging guidance and sampled stations must be reviewed for current code details; what was actually documented is endoscopic bronchial fluid instillation and recovery, not the different evidence of needle acquisition of tissue outside bronchial wall.

Question 705

Groin hernia contents are reduced and the defect repaired through a direct inguinal incision. Which of these operative services matches the completed work?

  1. Incisional ventral hernia repair
  2. Umbilical hernia repair
  3. Laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair
  4. Open inguinal hernia repair

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Open inguinal repair treats a groin defect by an anterior approach. Side, age, recurrence, and operative findings govern classification rather than equating it with ventral hernia.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An incisional hernia occurs in a prior abdominal wall incision; it differs from primary umbilical or inguinal hernia, and current defect-size rules must be reviewed; the scenario instead describes direct open repair of groin hernia, without demonstrating repair of defect at previous laparotomy scar.

B:

Umbilical hernia is defined by the location at the navel; documentation of size and whether the case is initial or recurrent matters under current abdominal hernia coding frameworks; the patient record supports direct open repair of groin hernia rather than the alternative finding of closure of hernia at umbilical ring.

C:

Laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair corresponds to minimally invasive repair of a groin hernia rather than open inguinal, umbilical, or ventral repair; the record specifies direct open repair of groin hernia. Those details establish different classifications.

Question 706

A suction sampler takes a small portion of uterine lining to evaluate abnormal bleeding. What intervention should be recognized from this operative detail?

  1. Hysteroscopic submucosal myomectomy
  2. Endometrial ablation
  3. Office endometrial biopsy
  4. Hysteroscopic endometrial polypectomy

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Endometrial biopsy retrieves diagnostic mucosal tissue without fully curetting the uterine cavity. It is not operative polyp removal.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Although Hysteroscopic submucosal myomectomy may sound adjacent, it denotes resection of an intracavitary fibroid under hysteroscopic vision rather than polyp removal, ablation, biopsy, or blind curettage; this record documents limited suction sample of endometrial lining, which is distinct from that alternative.

B:

Ablation destroys endometrial tissue to reduce bleeding rather than sampling it for histology; the technique and code family differ from polypectomy; the chart records limited suction sample of endometrial lining rather than destruction of endometrial lining for bleeding control.

D:

Hysteroscopic polypectomy uses visualization to excise an intracavitary lesion; it differs from blind sampling or global endometrial ablation; the documented detail of limited suction sample of endometrial lining prevents classifying it as targeted endoscopic removal of uterine polyp.

Question 707

Image-based coordinates guide a needle to sample a deep brain lesion without open mass resection. Which reported approach and procedure combination is described?

  1. Intracranial neuroendoscopy
  2. Craniotomy for brain tumor resection
  3. Evacuation of acute epidural hematoma
  4. Stereotactic brain needle biopsy

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Stereotactic biopsy is targeted diagnostic sampling using precise localization. It differs from a full craniotomy or purely endoscopic ventricular inspection.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Neuroendoscopy visualizes intracranial spaces through a scope; the documented therapeutic maneuver, if any, differentiates it from needle biopsy and open resection; the reported work involves coordinate-guided needle sample of deep brain lesion and does not establish intraventricular inspection via cerebral endoscope.

B:

Craniotomy provides broad access through a bone flap and permits definitive tumor removal; it is distinct from small stereotactic diagnostic sampling; the documented detail of coordinate-guided needle sample of deep brain lesion prevents classifying it as skull bone flap opening for brain tumor excision.

C:

Although Evacuation of acute epidural hematoma may sound adjacent, it denotes craniotomy or burr-hole evacuation of blood outside the dura rather than a documented subdural collection or brain-tumor biopsy or resection; this record documents coordinate-guided needle sample of deep brain lesion, which is distinct from that alternative.

Question 708

Sonographic images comprehensively assess the defined abdominal organs for diffuse symptoms. What diagnostic imaging service does this record describe?

  1. Duplex Doppler ultrasound
  2. Focused thyroid ultrasound
  3. Complete abdominal ultrasound
  4. Limited abdominal ultrasound

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Complete abdominal ultrasound requires evaluation of designated structures rather than a focused view of one organ. A limited scan should not be promoted to a complete exam.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Duplex imaging combines anatomic ultrasound with Doppler flow information; simple gray-scale organ ultrasound does not establish the same vascular study; this clinical evidence establishes comprehensive imaging of specified abdominal organs, not sonography combining anatomic and flow waveforms.

B:

Focused thyroid ultrasound corresponds to sonographic examination restricted to the thyroid gland rather than abdomen, pelvis, or a vascular duplex examination; the record specifies comprehensive imaging of specified abdominal organs. Those details establish different classifications.

D:

A limited abdominal exam evaluates a restricted region or subset of organs; code selection follows the extent documented rather than a generic request for abdominal ultrasound; the scenario instead describes comprehensive imaging of specified abdominal organs, without demonstrating targeted sonography of restricted abdominal organs.

Question 709

Urine temperature, pH, or creatinine is assessed to evaluate possible sample substitution or dilution. What laboratory analysis is established by these steps?

  1. Therapeutic serum lithium quantification
  2. Specimen validity testing
  3. Definitive toxicology by mass spectrometry
  4. Serum ethanol quantitative assay

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Validity checks assess sample integrity and are not equivalent to testing for a therapeutic or illicit drug. Separate coding depends on applicable payer policy.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Therapeutic serum lithium quantification involves quantitative monitoring of a prescribed therapeutic medication rather than broad drug-of-abuse screening, alcohol level, or specimen adulteration testing; the note describes evaluation of urine specimen integrity instead, changing the applicable classification.

C:

Definitive testing identifies individual substances using analytic methods with greater specificity; it should not be billed merely because a rapid immunoassay was performed; the patient record supports evaluation of urine specimen integrity rather than the alternative finding of specific chemical identification by mass spectrometry.

D:

Ethanol testing reports a specific analyte concentration, not a broad panel of controlled drug classes; documentation identifies the measured specimen and method; the chart records evaluation of urine specimen integrity rather than numeric blood alcohol concentration.

Question 710

A clinician performs joint mobilization and soft-tissue manipulation using hands-on techniques. What service designation is appropriate to the note?

  1. Therapeutic exercise
  2. Gait training therapy
  3. Therapeutic activities
  4. Manual therapy

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Manual therapy applies skilled physical forces to joints or tissues. It is separate from patient-performed repetitive strengthening tasks.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Therapeutic exercise targets strength, endurance, range, or flexibility; time-based codes depend on skilled direct service rather than unattended use of gym equipment; the scenario instead describes hands-on joint and soft-tissue mobilization, without demonstrating active exercises to improve strength and motion.

B:

This alternative, Gait training therapy, concerns supervised walking and mobility retraining rather than therapeutic exercise, activities, neuromuscular reeducation, or manual techniques; the alternative is not supported by the documented hands-on joint and soft-tissue mobilization.

C:

Therapeutic activities are dynamic functional performance tasks rather than isolated strengthening movements; documentation should show direct skilled intervention; this clinical evidence establishes hands-on joint and soft-tissue mobilization, not practice of goal-directed functional movements.

Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Practice Tests