AAPC CPC (Certified Professional Coder) Practice Test 66

Question 650

A physician evaluates an established issue through audio-only communication when the payer and date permit the service. Which E/M reporting approach is consistent with this documentation?

  1. Remote physiologic monitoring management
  2. Telephone-only professional evaluation
  3. Automated portal appointment reminder
  4. Synchronous telehealth E/M visit

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Audio-only services can follow distinct code and payer requirements. They should not automatically be billed as an in-person office examination.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Remote monitoring services require device, data, and treatment-management elements under the relevant code and payer rules; casual patient email of a single reading is insufficient; structured remote monitoring with documented management is not recorded; the evidence points to professional clinical assessment conducted by phone only.

C:

Automated portal appointment reminder corresponds to computer-generated notification without an eligible professional E/M evaluation or monitoring service; the record specifies professional clinical assessment conducted by phone only. Those details establish different classifications.

D:

Telehealth reporting depends on code, place of service, modifier, patient location, date, and payer rules; the clinical E/M requirements do not disappear because communication is remote; this clinical evidence establishes professional clinical assessment conducted by phone only, not real-time remote clinical evaluation with visual connection.

Question 651

A ureteroscope locates a small ureteral calculus, which is grasped and withdrawn intact in a basket. There is no laser fragmentation, shockwave treatment, or ureteral incision. What technique was performed?

  1. Open ureterolithotomy through an incision
  2. Ureteroscopy with laser lithotripsy
  3. Ureteroscopy with intact stone extraction by basket
  4. Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The stone is physically retrieved without being broken. The note must distinguish extraction from fragmentation when choosing the procedure description.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Ureterolithotomy involves open exposure and removal by incision. The service here is endoscopic basket retrieval.

B:

Lithotripsy uses energy to fragment the stone before removal. No laser was activated and the calculus remained intact.

D:

Extracorporeal treatment fragments stones using externally delivered shockwaves. The documented treatment occurred through an internal ureteroscope.

Question 652

An imaging report notes a harmless unrelated feature that neither affects management nor prompts evaluation. Which reporting principle follows from this assessment?

  1. Incidental finding
  2. Rule-out diagnosis in inpatient discharge coding
  3. Uncertain outpatient diagnosis
  4. Integral symptom

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Incidental abnormalities need not be reported solely because they appear in the report. Code selection should reflect clinical relevance and the reason for the encounter.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Although Rule-out diagnosis in inpatient discharge coding may sound adjacent, it denotes an uncertain diagnosis retained as probable at the end of a qualifying inpatient stay, not the outpatient certainty convention; this record documents unrelated incidental finding without management, which is distinct from that alternative.

C:

Outpatient coding does not treat probable or rule-out conditions as confirmed; report supported symptoms, signs, or reasons for care at the appropriate certainty level; suspected condition in outpatient setting is not recorded; the evidence points to unrelated incidental finding without management.

D:

Symptoms integral to a confirmed disease generally are not separately coded unless a guideline or code instruction requires otherwise; the clinical relationship and documentation matter; symptom routinely included in confirmed diagnosis is not recorded; the evidence points to unrelated incidental finding without management.

Question 653

Spreading warmth and tenderness involve the dermis and subcutaneous tissue without a defined pus cavity. Which diagnosis classification reflects the signed assessment?

  1. Cellulitis of lower limb
  2. Atopic dermatitis
  3. Pressure ulcer stage two
  4. Seborrheic keratosis

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Cellulitis is diffuse bacterial infection of skin and underlying tissues, distinct from a localized abscess that can be drained. Laterality and location may refine coding.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Atopic dermatitis is an inflammatory pruritic dermatosis, not necessarily infection or a pressure-related wound; A specific named dermatitis should not be coded as generic skin infection; the controlling finding is diffuse skin infection without localized pus cavity, which is distinct from chronic atopic eczematous inflammation.

C:

Stage 2 pressure injury is partial-thickness loss, unlike stages extending into deeper tissues; the clinician should establish the pressure ulcer diagnosis and stage documentation should meet coding rules; the distinction is the record’s diffuse skin infection without localized pus cavity versus the alternative of partial-thickness pressure injury with visible dermis.

D:

Seborrheic keratosis corresponds to a benign superficial epidermal growth rather than inflammation, pressure injury, or bacterial skin infection; the record specifies diffuse skin infection without localized pus cavity. Those details establish different classifications.

Question 654

A small entire suspicious lesion is removed as a specimen with diagnostic intent and the chosen code rules are checked. Which technique is supported by the operative report?

  1. Excisional skin biopsy
  2. Punch skin biopsy
  3. Shave removal of a clinically benign lesion
  4. Incisional skin biopsy

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

An excisional biopsy removes the lesion completely for diagnostic evaluation. Determine whether the actual service is reported through excision rather than a separate biopsy code based on current CPT instructions.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A punch biopsy harvests a round tissue core through the cutaneous layers, according to size and technique; it differs from a surface shave or an elliptical incisional sample; circular full-thickness diagnostic skin core is not recorded; the evidence points to complete diagnostic removal of small lesion.

C:

Shave removal of a clinically benign lesion refers to surface removal for treatment without the documentation that tissue sampling is performed as a diagnostic biopsy, but the documented clinical work is complete diagnostic removal of small lesion; choosing it would misclassify the documented encounter.

D:

An incisional biopsy deliberately samples a portion of a larger lesion rather than attempting complete therapeutic excision; the surgeon's documented diagnostic intent is decisive; to select this alternative the report would need partial elliptical tissue sampling for diagnosis, whereas it identifies complete diagnostic removal of small lesion.

Question 655

A contracting fibrous palmar cord is excised to correct finger flexion deformity. How should this completed operation be classified?

  1. Extensor tendon sheath release
  2. Dorsal wrist ganglion excision
  3. Open carpal tunnel release
  4. Dupuytren fasciectomy

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Palmar fasciectomy removes pathologic fascia producing contracture. It is not simply tenotomy of a flexor tendon or tendon transfer.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Decompression of an extensor compartment frees the tendons from a constricting sheath; it is distinct from removing a ganglion or repairing severed tendon fibers; what was actually documented is excision of contracted palmar fascia cord, not the different evidence of division of constricted wrist tendon compartment sheath.

B:

Ganglion excision removes a cystic mass and its attachment, with site-dependent coding; it is not tendon repair or a fracture procedure; the operative or visit note documents excision of contracted palmar fascia cord instead of removal of synovial ganglion with pedicle.

C:

The distinguishing evidence for Open carpal tunnel release would be division of the transverse carpal ligament for median nerve decompression rather than tendon sheath release, ganglion removal, or Dupuytren surgery; the described patient or procedure has excision of contracted palmar fascia cord, not those features.

Question 656

The fractured nasal bones are realigned externally without an open incision. Which procedure name fits the documented anatomical target and method?

  1. Septoplasty
  2. Endoscopic anterior ethmoidectomy
  3. Closed nasal fracture reduction
  4. Inferior turbinate reduction

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Closed nasal reduction restores bony alignment by manipulation. It is not a septoplasty, turbinate reduction, or endoscopic sinus opening.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Septoplasty corrects structural deviation of the partition between nasal cavities; it does not primarily remove sinus mucosa or enlarge inferior turbinates; the scenario instead describes manipulation of displaced nasal bones without exposure, without demonstrating operative straightening of nasal septum.

B:

The required element for Endoscopic anterior ethmoidectomy is removal of selected ethmoid air cells rather than a maxillary antrostomy, septoplasty, turbinate reduction, or nasal-fracture reduction; what is described is manipulation of displaced nasal bones without exposure, without evidence for the alternative feature.

D:

Turbinate reduction decreases obstructive nasal tissue; it differs from correcting septal cartilage and from opening a diseased paranasal sinus; this clinical evidence establishes manipulation of displaced nasal bones without exposure, not surgical reduction of inferior turbinate tissue.

Question 657

An impacted food bolus is removed from the esophagus using an endoscopic retrieval device. Which of these operative services matches the completed work?

  1. EGD with endoscopic control of bleeding
  2. EGD with biopsy
  3. EGD with balloon dilation
  4. EGD with foreign-body retrieval

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Foreign-body removal extracts a lodged object through the scope. It differs from widening a stricture or sampling tissue for pathology.

Incorrect Answers

A:

EGD with endoscopic control of bleeding corresponds to hemostasis using injection, cautery, or clipping during upper endoscopy rather than biopsy, dilation, retrieval, or diagnostic survey alone; the record specifies endoscopic extraction of impacted esophageal material. Those details establish different classifications.

B:

EGD biopsy acquires tissue through the scope; sampling changes the procedure compared with diagnostic visualization alone, and multiple samples do not necessarily mean multiple endoscopic procedure codes; the distinction is the record’s endoscopic extraction of impacted esophageal material versus the alternative of upper endoscopic mucosal tissue sampling.

C:

Endoscopic dilation mechanically increases lumen diameter; the actual dilation method and level matter; it is not merely diagnostic EGD or specimen biopsy; the chart records endoscopic extraction of impacted esophageal material rather than balloon expansion of esophageal narrowing.

Question 658

A visible papillary bladder tumor is resected with a loop through the urethra. Which reported approach and procedure combination is described?

  1. Cystoscopic bladder fulguration
  2. Diagnostic cystoscopy
  3. Transurethral resection of bladder tumor
  4. Cystoscopic bladder stone fragmentation

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

TURBT removes bladder tumor tissue using an endoscopic resection device. Code selection is sensitive to tumor size and separate-site guidelines.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Fulguration destroys tissue through a scope, differing from forceps biopsy or loop resection; the documented lesion size and intent affect code choice; cautery destruction of bladder lesion is not recorded; the evidence points to loop resection of bladder neoplasm through urethra.

B:

Diagnostic cystoscopy is direct visual assessment of the lower urinary tract; therapeutic actions through the scope change the procedure family; inspection-only endoscopy of bladder is not recorded; the evidence points to loop resection of bladder neoplasm through urethra.

D:

Cystoscopic bladder stone fragmentation involves endoscopic fragmentation of a urinary bladder calculus rather than biopsy, fulguration, tumor resection, or diagnostic inspection; the note describes loop resection of bladder neoplasm through urethra instead, changing the applicable classification.

Question 659

An obstructed existing CSF shunt valve or tubing is repaired or exchanged without establishing an entirely new system. Which coded-service concept best represents the surgery actually performed?

  1. Lumbar CSF drain placement
  2. Initial ventriculoperitoneal shunt placement
  3. Endoscopic third ventriculostomy
  4. Ventriculoperitoneal shunt revision

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Revision modifies a previously implanted diversion device. The components actually replaced determine the specific procedural category.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Lumbar drainage accesses CSF below the spinal cord rather than the cerebral ventricle; its purpose and approach differ from a VP shunt; this clinical evidence establishes corrective work on existing internal CSF shunt, not temporary diversion of lumbar subarachnoid CSF.

B:

VP shunting establishes internal CSF diversion from ventricle to abdomen; it differs from a short-term external drain or mere shunt revision; to select this alternative the report would need new ventricle-to-peritoneal CSF drainage system, whereas it identifies corrective work on existing internal CSF shunt.

C:

The Endoscopic third ventriculostomy choice presumes creation of an internal endoscopic CSF flow pathway through the floor of the third ventricle, not catheter drainage or shunt creation or revision; the record instead establishes corrective work on existing internal CSF shunt, making that alternative an inaccurate description.

Question 660

A knee MRI uses multiple magnetic resonance sequences without gadolinium injection. What diagnostic imaging service does this record describe?

  1. MRI without contrast
  2. MRI with and without contrast
  3. MRI of joint without injected arthrographic contrast
  4. MR angiography

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Noncontrast MRI visualizes tissue using magnetic fields and radiofrequency pulses. It differs from intra-articular contrast arthrography and contrast-enhanced vascular studies.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Combined MR protocol documents both precontrast and postcontrast imaging; A postcontrast-only exam should not be assumed when both are obtained; the patient record supports magnetic resonance exam without contrast agent rather than the alternative finding of pre- and post-gadolinium MRI sequences.

C:

MRI of joint without injected arthrographic contrast corresponds to standard joint MR without intra-articular contrast, separate from a direct MR arthrogram; the record specifies magnetic resonance exam without contrast agent. Those details establish different classifications.

D:

MRA targets vessels with specialized sequences, with or without contrast according to protocol; it is not simply a contrast-enhanced routine brain MRI; the chart records magnetic resonance exam without contrast agent rather than magnetic resonance vascular lumen study.

Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Practice Tests