AAPC CPC (Certified Professional Coder) Practice Test 65

Question 640

Episodic abdominal discomfort and altered bowel habit meet the clinician's IBS diagnosis without inflammatory bowel pathology. Which diagnosis classification reflects the signed assessment?

  1. Gastroesophageal reflux without esophagitis K21.9
  2. Cholelithiasis without cholecystitis
  3. Acute appendicitis
  4. Irritable bowel syndrome

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

IBS is a functional bowel syndrome; it should not be confused with Crohn disease, ulcerative colitis, or diverticular infection. Subtype depends on the documented stool pattern.

Incorrect Answers

A:

K21.9 identifies GERD without esophagitis; the presence of heartburn alone or documented esophageal inflammation may call for different coding; the reported work involves functional bowel disorder without structural inflammation and does not establish reflux disease without esophagitis.

B:

Calculus without cholecystitis differs from an inflamed gallbladder or an obstructing ductal stone; clinical documentation controls the more precise classification; the reported work involves functional bowel disorder without structural inflammation and does not establish gallstones without inflammation or obstruction.

C:

This alternative, Acute appendicitis, concerns acute inflammation of the appendix rather than gallstones, reflux, bowel diverticula, or functional bowel symptoms; the alternative is not supported by the documented functional bowel disorder without structural inflammation.

Question 641

An entire epidermal and dermal layer is harvested from behind the ear for transfer to a small defect. Which coded-service concept best represents the surgery actually performed?

  1. Full-thickness skin graft
  2. Skin substitute application
  3. Split-thickness autograft
  4. Local rotation flap transfer

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Full-thickness grafts transfer all dermal thickness and require donor-site closure. Technique and recipient location separate these from partial-thickness sheets.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Skin substitute placement represents application of a manufactured or biologic product, with reporting governed by anatomical site and wound area; it does not mean autologous skin was harvested; the documented detail of full epidermis and dermis transplanted prevents classifying it as purchased biological covering applied to wound.

C:

Split-thickness grafting moves epidermis with partial dermis, allowing donor-site reepithelialization; document recipient area, donor considerations, and relevant code instructions; the controlling finding is full epidermis and dermis transplanted, which is distinct from partial-dermis autologous skin harvest.

D:

Local rotation flap transfer is supported by documentation of advancement or rotation of adjacent skin with an intact blood supply rather than graft transfer or substitute application; here the decisive finding is full epidermis and dermis transplanted; the defining work for this distractor is absent.

Question 642

An intact tendon is freed from adhesions that restrict gliding after an earlier injury. Which listed service reflects the actual surgical technique?

  1. Tendon transfer
  2. Tendon repair
  3. Free tendon graft reconstruction
  4. Tenolysis

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Tenolysis releases scar binding without repairing a torn tendon. The operative description must establish actual adhesion dissection.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Transfer reroutes muscle power to a different functional attachment, which differs from directly repairing the original tendon or merely freeing adhesions; repositioning functional tendon to new attachment is not recorded; the evidence points to release of tendon from restrictive adhesions.

B:

Repair restores continuity of a severed tendon; the specific tendon zone and number of structures repaired determine more detailed coding; this clinical evidence establishes release of tendon from restrictive adhesions, not direct suturing of divided tendon ends.

C:

Selecting Free tendon graft reconstruction would require reconstruction using an interposed tendon graft rather than release, simple direct repair, transfer, or adhesiolysis; the actual document states release of tendon from restrictive adhesions, which distinguishes the correct choice.

Question 643

An expandable scaffold is left in the artery after treatment of stenosis. What specific intervention does the note establish?

  1. Catheter-directed intra-arterial thrombolysis
  2. Directional atherectomy
  3. Balloon angioplasty
  4. Intravascular stent placement

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A vascular stent provides an implanted scaffold. If angioplasty is integral to stenting in the selected territory, current code bundling rules govern reporting.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The required element for Catheter-directed intra-arterial thrombolysis is delivery of a clot-dissolving agent into an artery rather than angiography, balloon dilation, atherectomy, or stent deployment; what is described is permanent intraluminal vascular scaffold, without evidence for the alternative feature.

B:

Atherectomy debulks plaque rather than only compressing it; device type, vessel territory, and any stenting determine the applicable endovascular family; the operative or visit note documents permanent intraluminal vascular scaffold instead of mechanical removal of arterial plaque.

C:

Angioplasty mechanically expands a stenotic lumen; it differs from stent deployment or removing atheroma with an atherectomy device; the patient record supports permanent intraluminal vascular scaffold rather than the alternative finding of balloon-based enlargement of artery.

Question 644

A localized benign mass is removed from the vermilion portion of the lip. Which anatomical operation is indicated by the described work?

  1. Floor-of-mouth abscess drainage
  2. Excision of lip lesion
  3. Tongue incisional biopsy
  4. Transoral removal of salivary duct stone

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Lip lesion excision is classified by site, depth, and method rather than automatically as a generic skin lesion. The documented anatomy of the lip matters.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Intraoral floor-of-mouth drainage treats a deep oral collection, rather than a skin abscess or salivary-gland excision; access and anatomical space distinguish it; what was actually documented is removal of lesion from vermilion lip tissue, not the different evidence of intraoral drainage of sublingual purulence.

C:

Oral tongue biopsy samples tissue for diagnosis and does not imply definitive wide resection of the tongue; site and incisional technique direct the code family; what was actually documented is removal of lesion from vermilion lip tissue, not the different evidence of partial diagnostic sampling of tongue mucosa.

D:

Transoral removal of salivary duct stone involves removal of an obstructing duct calculus with preservation of the major salivary gland instead of gland excision; the note describes removal of lesion from vermilion lip tissue instead, changing the applicable classification.

Question 645

Laparoscopic instruments detach uterus and cervix and complete the hysterectomy laparoscopically. How should this completed operation be classified?

  1. Laparoscopic supracervical hysterectomy
  2. Laparoscopic-assisted vaginal hysterectomy
  3. Open total abdominal hysterectomy
  4. Total laparoscopic hysterectomy

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

TLH removes the uterus and cervix using a laparoscopic approach, differing from vaginal-assisted and supracervical procedures. Documentation of key steps is essential.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Supracervical hysterectomy preserves the cervix, a defining anatomic distinction from total hysterectomy; the retained cervix should be reflected in coding; this clinical evidence establishes laparoscopic removal of uterus including cervix, not laparoscopic removal of uterine corpus with cervix retained.

B:

The Laparoscopic-assisted vaginal hysterectomy choice presumes laparoscopic dissection followed by completion of the uterine removal through the vagina, not purely vaginal, total laparoscopic, supracervical, or open approach; the record instead establishes laparoscopic removal of uterus including cervix, making that alternative an inaccurate description.

C:

Total abdominal hysterectomy removes uterus and cervix through an open abdominal approach; whether ovaries or tubes are also excised must be separately described in the chosen code family; to select this alternative the report would need removal of uterus and cervix via laparotomy, whereas it identifies laparoscopic removal of uterus including cervix.

Question 646

An electrode array is threaded into cochlea and connected to an implanted receiver for severe hearing loss. What is the most accurate term for the performed procedure?

  1. Endolymphatic sac decompression
  2. Ossiculoplasty
  3. Bone-anchored hearing device implantation
  4. Cochlear implant insertion

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Cochlear implantation provides electrical stimulation to auditory pathways. It differs from middle-ear ossicular reconstruction.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Sac decompression addresses fluid-pressure pathology of inner ear; it is not repair of the tympanic membrane or cochlear electrical stimulation; what was actually documented is electrode array implanted within cochlea, not the different evidence of decompression of inner-ear endolymphatic sac.

B:

Ossiculoplasty repairs mechanical sound conduction in the middle ear; it does not place a cochlear electrode or simply open the eardrum for drainage; the scenario instead describes electrode array implanted within cochlea, without demonstrating reconstruction of middle-ear ossicular chain.

C:

Bone-anchored hearing device implantation involves attachment of an osseointegrated hearing processor fixture rather than ossicular reconstruction, cochlear electrode insertion, stapedectomy, or endolymphatic sac surgery; the note describes electrode array implanted within cochlea instead, changing the applicable classification.

Question 647

A soft-tissue neck CT is acquired after iodinated intravenous contrast but no noncontrast series is taken. Which imaging choice accurately represents the acquisition?

  1. CT enterography with oral enteric distention
  2. CT with intravenous contrast
  3. CT angiography
  4. CT without and with contrast

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A postcontrast-only CT study differs from a combined without-and-with protocol. Actual image acquisitions determine the chosen descriptor.

Incorrect Answers

A:

CT enterography with oral enteric distention is supported by documentation of specialized bowel CT protocol using intestinal distention rather than an ordinary without-, with-, or multiphase intravenous contrast CT designation; here the decisive finding is contrast-enhanced CT series only; the defining work for this distractor is absent.

C:

CTA emphasizes vascular lumen by contrast timing and postprocessing; it is not automatically a routine soft-tissue CT with intravenous contrast; arterial-phase contrast CT with vessel reconstruction is not recorded; the evidence points to contrast-enhanced CT series only.

D:

Combined noncontrast and contrast phases represent a different CT coding category from a single postcontrast phase; oral contrast alone does not establish intravenous contrast administration; the controlling finding is contrast-enhanced CT series only, which is distinct from CT acquired both before and after IV enhancement.

Question 648

Albumin, bilirubin fractions, and liver-associated enzymes are included in a defined panel. Which laboratory examination follows from these facts?

  1. Basic metabolic panel
  2. Comprehensive metabolic panel
  3. Hepatic function panel
  4. Renal function panel

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A hepatic panel evaluates liver-related chemistry components as specified in CPT. A single transaminase result does not justify reporting the complete panel.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An organ or disease panel can be reported when all required component tests are performed; separately adding the identical individual components would duplicate included work; the operative or visit note documents full specified liver chemistry test group instead of complete ordered basic metabolic analyte set.

B:

A comprehensive panel contains a larger defined set than a basic metabolic panel; coding follows the actual required components, not the physician's loosely worded title; the chart records full specified liver chemistry test group rather than full comprehensive metabolic panel constituent tests.

D:

Selecting Renal function panel would require defined renal chemistry panel that includes phosphorus, unlike a BMP, CMP, hepatic, or lipid panel; the actual document states full specified liver chemistry test group, which distinguishes the correct choice.

Question 649

Declining blood flow through a hemodialysis access prompts physician assessment of its function and need for revision. What reporting distinction is demonstrated here?

  1. Placement of tunneled dialysis catheter
  2. Single hemodialysis treatment
  3. Dialysis circuit assessment
  4. Peritoneal dialysis oversight

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Access evaluation addresses the vascular circuit and potential intervention, different from routine solute-removal dialysis treatment. Code selection follows actual imaging or work performed.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Placement of tunneled dialysis catheter is supported by documentation of vascular access device insertion for dialysis rather than nephrologist management, dialysis session, or circuit assessment; here the decisive finding is assessment of malfunctioning hemodialysis access circuit; the defining work for this distractor is absent.

B:

Single-session dialysis management represents professional work connected with one treatment; repeated monthly ESRD oversight uses a different coding framework; the documented detail of assessment of malfunctioning hemodialysis access circuit prevents classifying it as physician management of a discrete hemodialysis session.

D:

Peritoneal dialysis management concerns dialysate exchanges through peritoneum, unlike extracorporeal hemodialysis machine sessions; the management period matters; this clinical evidence establishes assessment of malfunctioning hemodialysis access circuit, not professional oversight of peritoneal dialysis therapy.

Question 650

A physician evaluates an established issue through audio-only communication when the payer and date permit the service. Which E/M reporting approach is consistent with this documentation?

  1. Remote physiologic monitoring management
  2. Telephone-only professional evaluation
  3. Automated portal appointment reminder
  4. Synchronous telehealth E/M visit

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Audio-only services can follow distinct code and payer requirements. They should not automatically be billed as an in-person office examination.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Remote monitoring services require device, data, and treatment-management elements under the relevant code and payer rules; casual patient email of a single reading is insufficient; structured remote monitoring with documented management is not recorded; the evidence points to professional clinical assessment conducted by phone only.

C:

Automated portal appointment reminder corresponds to computer-generated notification without an eligible professional E/M evaluation or monitoring service; the record specifies professional clinical assessment conducted by phone only. Those details establish different classifications.

D:

Telehealth reporting depends on code, place of service, modifier, patient location, date, and payer rules; the clinical E/M requirements do not disappear because communication is remote; this clinical evidence establishes professional clinical assessment conducted by phone only, not real-time remote clinical evaluation with visual connection.

Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Practice Tests