AAPC CPC (Certified Professional Coder) Practice Test 64

Question 630

A Fogarty-type catheter extracts a fresh embolus from an acutely occluded limb artery. Which listed service reflects the actual surgical technique?

  1. Open aneurysm repair
  2. Peripheral arterial bypass graft
  3. Arterial embolectomy
  4. Endovascular repair of abdominal aortic aneurysm

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Embolectomy removes an obstructing embolus. It is not a planned bypass or removal of chronic atherosclerotic plaque from the arterial wall.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Open aneurysm correction treats the dilated aortic segment under direct exposure, unlike endovascular stent-graft placement through remote vascular access; the distinction is the record’s extraction of acute intraluminal arterial embolus versus the alternative of direct open reconstruction of aneurysmal artery.

B:

Bypass diverts blood around an obstructed segment using a conduit; it does not directly remove the plaque or merely widen the stenotic area; the chart records extraction of acute intraluminal arterial embolus rather than arterial conduit routing around occlusion.

D:

Endovascular repair of abdominal aortic aneurysm refers to percutaneous stent-graft exclusion of an aortic aneurysm rather than open graft replacement or bypass, but the documented clinical work is extraction of acute intraluminal arterial embolus; choosing it would misclassify the documented encounter.

Question 631

A suspicious peritoneal implant in the omentum is sampled during surgery for histology. What is the most accurate term for the performed procedure?

  1. Omental biopsy
  2. Peritoneal dialysis catheter placement
  3. Adhesiolysis
  4. Diagnostic or therapeutic paracentesis

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Omental sampling acquires tissue from fatty peritoneal folds. It is not merely removing free fluid or lysing scar bands.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Peritoneal dialysis catheter placement corresponds to insertion of an indwelling catheter for chronic dialysis rather than abdominal fluid aspiration, adhesiolysis, biopsy, or abscess drainage; the record specifies surgical sampling of omental tissue. Those details establish different classifications.

C:

Adhesiolysis releases scar attachments; when integral to another abdominal operation it may not be separately reportable without qualifying distinct work under code rules; the reported work involves surgical sampling of omental tissue and does not establish division of intraabdominal scar adhesions.

D:

Paracentesis removes intraperitoneal fluid; guidance and technique matter; it should not be equated with open surgical drainage of a loculated abscess; what was actually documented is surgical sampling of omental tissue, not the different evidence of percutaneous aspiration of ascites.

Question 632

Fetal heart rate accelerations are observed relative to spontaneous movement without induced contractions. What intervention should be recognized from this operative detail?

  1. Chorionic villus sampling
  2. Amniocentesis
  3. Umbilical artery Doppler surveillance
  4. Fetal nonstress test

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

An NST assesses fetal heart response without contraction challenge. Interpretation and performed components determine whether a biophysical profile was performed instead.

Incorrect Answers

A:

CVS retrieves chorionic tissue rather than amniotic fluid; its sampling route and technique distinguish it from later amniocentesis; the reported work involves external fetal heart monitoring with spontaneous activity and does not establish collection of placental chorionic villi.

B:

Amniocentesis samples amniotic fluid and may involve ultrasound guidance under specific code rules; it is not placental chorionic villus biopsy; the documented detail of external fetal heart monitoring with spontaneous activity prevents classifying it as needle aspiration of amniotic fluid.

C:

The Umbilical artery Doppler surveillance choice presumes Doppler measurement of fetal-placental arterial flow instead of fetal tracing, ultrasound biophysical scoring, or invasive genetic sampling; the record instead establishes external fetal heart monitoring with spontaneous activity, making that alternative an inaccurate description.

Question 633

An opacified crystalline lens is removed and replaced with a synthetic intraocular lens. What specific intervention does the note establish?

  1. Corneal transplantation
  2. Trabeculectomy
  3. Cataract extraction with intraocular lens
  4. Excision of conjunctival pterygium

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Cataract surgery removes the native lens and implants an optical substitute. Technique and complexity determine the coding pathway; it is not corneal transplantation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Keratoplasty restores the corneal surface or thickness, distinct from surgery on the internal crystalline lens; layer depth determines the procedure variant; the distinction is the record’s extraction of cloudy natural lens with implant versus the alternative of donor corneal tissue replacing patient's cornea.

B:

Trabeculectomy lowers intraocular pressure by filtering aqueous humor; it differs from creating a small laser opening in peripheral iris; the scenario instead describes extraction of cloudy natural lens with implant, without demonstrating surgical filtration channel for aqueous humor.

D:

Excision of conjunctival pterygium corresponds to surface removal of fibrovascular conjunctival growth crossing the cornea, not cataract, trabeculectomy, keratoplasty, or laser iridotomy; the record specifies extraction of cloudy natural lens with implant. Those details establish different classifications.

Question 634

Brain MRI includes baseline sequences followed by gadolinium-enhanced sequences. How should the completed examination be classified?

  1. MR angiography
  2. Direct MR arthrography
  3. MRI of joint without injected arthrographic contrast
  4. MRI with and without contrast

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Combined MR protocol documents both precontrast and postcontrast imaging. A postcontrast-only exam should not be assumed when both are obtained.

Incorrect Answers

A:

MRA targets vessels with specialized sequences, with or without contrast according to protocol; it is not simply a contrast-enhanced routine brain MRI; the operative or visit note documents pre- and post-gadolinium MRI sequences instead of magnetic resonance vascular lumen study.

B:

Direct arthrography places contrast into the joint space, rather than simple intravenous enhancement; the injection and MR component may have distinct reporting rules; intra-articular contrast preceding joint MRI is not recorded; the evidence points to pre- and post-gadolinium MRI sequences.

C:

The distinguishing evidence for MRI of joint without injected arthrographic contrast would be standard joint MR without intra-articular contrast, separate from a direct MR arthrogram; the described patient or procedure has pre- and post-gadolinium MRI sequences, not those features.

Question 635

A diabetes follow-up measures glycation of hemoglobin to assess longer-term glycemic control. What is the appropriate designation for this reported analysis?

  1. Hemoglobin A1c assay
  2. Oral glucose tolerance test
  3. Troponin assay
  4. Serum thyroid-stimulating hormone assay

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

HbA1c reflects average glycemia over preceding weeks to months. It is not a point-in-time serum glucose measurement.

Incorrect Answers

B:

An OGTT evaluates glucose handling over several time points; it is not adequately characterized by a single fasting result; the scenario instead describes glycosylated hemoglobin measurement, without demonstrating timed glucose response after standardized oral challenge.

C:

Troponin reflects myocardial injury and is a specific biochemical assay; the result does not independently establish an infarction without clinical assessment; this clinical evidence establishes glycosylated hemoglobin measurement, not measurement of cardiac injury biomarker.

D:

Serum thyroid-stimulating hormone assay involves quantitative thyroid hormone regulatory assay rather than glucose tolerance, cardiac troponin, HbA1c, or plasma glucose; the note describes glycosylated hemoglobin measurement instead, changing the applicable classification.

Question 636

A second distinct antineoplastic medication follows the initial chemotherapy infusion in the same session. How should this documented therapeutic service be identified?

  1. Sequential chemotherapy infusion
  2. Subcutaneous antineoplastic drug administration
  3. Implanted venous port maintenance
  4. Chemotherapy intravenous push

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Sequential infusion represents an additional substance or sequence under applicable rules. A continued bag of the same substance is not automatically a new sequential service.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Subcutaneous antineoplastic drug administration reflects antineoplastic agent delivered through subcutaneous injection rather than intravenous initial, sequential, or push administration or port maintenance, whereas the clinical note identifies second separately administered chemotherapy substance; the different evidence changes the classification.

C:

Port maintenance concerns device patency and access, not administration of chemotherapy; if performed solely as part of another service, bundling rules affect reporting; the operative or visit note documents second separately administered chemotherapy substance instead of isolated flushing of implanted central access port.

D:

Chemotherapy push administration is distinguished by rapid delivery mechanism; it must not be coded as a lengthy infusion solely because the medication is an antineoplastic drug; the distinction is the record’s second separately administered chemotherapy substance versus the alternative of direct IV push of antineoplastic agent.

Question 637

The physician performs the first qualifying E/M service during a new hospital stay. What is the correct E/M classification principle?

  1. Initial hospital inpatient or observation care
  2. Subsequent hospital care
  3. Observation service without admission
  4. Same-day admission and discharge

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Current hospital E/M families group initial inpatient and observation care by status and relevant code definitions. Do not select an office code simply because the visit occurred during daytime.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Subsequent care describes ongoing evaluation after initial hospital services; documentation and allowed selection method establish the supported level; the distinction is the record’s first qualifying hospital or observation evaluation versus the alternative of continuing hospital evaluation after initial day.

C:

Although Observation service without admission may sound adjacent, it denotes outpatient observation management that has not become an initial inpatient admission, discharge, or subsequent inpatient encounter; this record documents first qualifying hospital or observation evaluation, which is distinct from that alternative.

D:

Certain same-date admission/discharge services have a specific E/M family and eligibility rules; duration and setting must be checked rather than reporting both initial and discharge services indiscriminately; to select this alternative the report would need qualifying hospital admission and discharge on one date, whereas it identifies first qualifying hospital or observation evaluation.

Question 638

An infected ventriculoperitoneal shunt is completely removed. The surgeon places a temporary external ventricular drain, with no replacement internal shunt. Which combination of actual work must the operative note distinguish?

  1. Routine revision of a retained functioning internal shunt only
  2. New permanent ventriculoperitoneal shunt placement
  3. Removal of the internal shunt system and placement of temporary external CSF drainage
  4. Diagnostic lumbar puncture without any device procedure

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Complete removal and separate external diversion were performed. Those steps must be distinguished from a simple revision of retained internal shunt hardware.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Revision changes or repairs part of an internal shunt that remains. The existing internal system was completely removed for infection.

B:

No new distal peritoneal catheter or internal permanent CSF diversion system was implanted at this surgery. Only a temporary external drain provides CSF diversion after the infected hardware is removed.

D:

The chart documents operative device removal and ventricular drain placement, not spinal tap sampling of CSF alone.

Question 639

A patient knowingly takes fewer prescribed tablets than directed because of cost. Which rule should the coder apply here?

  1. Underdosing
  2. Sequela of injury
  3. Poisoning
  4. Toxic effect of a nonmedicinal substance

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Underdosing means less medication taken than prescribed, and the reason may require additional coding. It should not be mislabeled as toxicity from excess medication.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Sequela coding identifies a residual effect of an earlier injury; it differs from active treatment and routine healing-phase care under the seventh-character rules; the patient record supports medication taken below prescribed amount rather than the alternative finding of residual problem after an injury has healed.

C:

Poisoning covers overdose, wrong substance, wrong route, and certain errors; the poisoning code generally leads the sequence before manifestations; this is not an ordinary adverse effect; the patient record supports medication taken below prescribed amount rather than the alternative finding of excessive or incorrect drug administration.

D:

In Toxic effect of a nonmedicinal substance, the work centers on harm from exposure to a nonmedicinal chemical rather than an adverse effect, overdose, underdosing, or sequela of an injury; instead, the report records medication taken below prescribed amount, which supports a different classification.

Question 640

Episodic abdominal discomfort and altered bowel habit meet the clinician's IBS diagnosis without inflammatory bowel pathology. Which diagnosis classification reflects the signed assessment?

  1. Gastroesophageal reflux without esophagitis K21.9
  2. Cholelithiasis without cholecystitis
  3. Acute appendicitis
  4. Irritable bowel syndrome

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

IBS is a functional bowel syndrome; it should not be confused with Crohn disease, ulcerative colitis, or diverticular infection. Subtype depends on the documented stool pattern.

Incorrect Answers

A:

K21.9 identifies GERD without esophagitis; the presence of heartburn alone or documented esophageal inflammation may call for different coding; the reported work involves functional bowel disorder without structural inflammation and does not establish reflux disease without esophagitis.

B:

Calculus without cholecystitis differs from an inflamed gallbladder or an obstructing ductal stone; clinical documentation controls the more precise classification; the reported work involves functional bowel disorder without structural inflammation and does not establish gallstones without inflammation or obstruction.

C:

This alternative, Acute appendicitis, concerns acute inflammation of the appendix rather than gallstones, reflux, bowel diverticula, or functional bowel symptoms; the alternative is not supported by the documented functional bowel disorder without structural inflammation.

Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Practice Tests