AAPC CPC (Certified Professional Coder) Practice Test 36

Question 350

A functioning tendon is redirected and attached to a new site to restore lost movement. Which technique is supported by the operative report?

  1. Tendon transfer
  2. Tenolysis
  3. Free tendon graft reconstruction
  4. Tenotomy

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Transfer reroutes muscle power to a different functional attachment, which differs from directly repairing the original tendon or merely freeing adhesions.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Tenolysis releases scar binding without repairing a torn tendon; the operative description must establish actual adhesion dissection; the scenario instead describes repositioning functional tendon to new attachment, without demonstrating release of tendon from restrictive adhesions.

C:

The distinguishing evidence for Free tendon graft reconstruction would be reconstruction using an interposed tendon graft rather than release, simple direct repair, transfer, or adhesiolysis; the described patient or procedure has repositioning functional tendon to new attachment, not those features.

D:

Tenotomy cuts a tendon for therapeutic release; it is not the same as reconstructing a laceration or moving a tendon to a new insertion; what was actually documented is repositioning functional tendon to new attachment, not the different evidence of planned division of tendon to release tension.

Question 351

An enlarged abdominal artery is surgically exposed and replaced or reinforced with a graft. How should the clinician’s described operative work be identified?

  1. Open aneurysm repair
  2. Endovascular repair of abdominal aortic aneurysm
  3. Carotid endarterectomy
  4. Peripheral arterial bypass graft

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Open aneurysm correction treats the dilated aortic segment under direct exposure, unlike endovascular stent-graft placement through remote vascular access.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Endovascular repair of abdominal aortic aneurysm corresponds to percutaneous stent-graft exclusion of an aortic aneurysm rather than open graft replacement or bypass; the record specifies direct open reconstruction of aneurysmal artery. Those details establish different classifications.

C:

Endarterectomy surgically removes intimal atheroma to restore flow; its method differs from luminal dilation or a bypass around the diseased segment; open plaque extraction from carotid wall is not recorded; the evidence points to direct open reconstruction of aneurysmal artery.

D:

Bypass diverts blood around an obstructed segment using a conduit; it does not directly remove the plaque or merely widen the stenotic area; what was actually documented is direct open reconstruction of aneurysmal artery, not the different evidence of arterial conduit routing around occlusion.

Question 352

An operation removes the cecum and ascending colon with associated mesentery. Which procedure name fits the documented anatomical target and method?

  1. Right hemicolectomy
  2. Laparoscopic appendectomy
  3. Segmental small-intestine resection
  4. Hartmann-type resection

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Right-sided colectomy is defined by which bowel segments are resected and the anastomosis performed. It is more extensive than appendectomy.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Laparoscopic appendectomy removes the appendix using minimally invasive access; it is different from open bowel segment resection or incision and drainage alone; what was actually documented is resection of cecum and ascending colon, not the different evidence of laparoscopic removal of vermiform appendix.

C:

Selecting Segmental small-intestine resection would require removal of an affected portion of jejunum or ileum rather than colonic resection or appendectomy; the actual document states resection of cecum and ascending colon, which distinguishes the correct choice.

D:

Hartmann surgery combines bowel resection with diversion rather than primary reconnection; these operative components determine proper classification; the reported work involves resection of cecum and ascending colon and does not establish sigmoid resection with end colostomy and rectal stump.

Question 353

Energy is applied to destroy a broad area of endometrial lining to treat bleeding. Which procedure best captures the surgeon’s documented action?

  1. Hysteroscopic submucosal myomectomy
  2. Dilation and curettage
  3. Hysteroscopic endometrial polypectomy
  4. Endometrial ablation

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Ablation destroys endometrial tissue to reduce bleeding rather than sampling it for histology. The technique and code family differ from polypectomy.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Hysteroscopic submucosal myomectomy corresponds to resection of an intracavitary fibroid under hysteroscopic vision rather than polyp removal, ablation, biopsy, or blind curettage; the record specifies destruction of endometrial lining for bleeding control. Those details establish different classifications.

B:

D&C removes intrauterine contents or tissue more broadly than a small office biopsy; specific clinical purpose controls code choice; the scenario instead describes destruction of endometrial lining for bleeding control, without demonstrating uterine cavity evacuation after cervical dilation.

C:

Hysteroscopic polypectomy uses visualization to excise an intracavitary lesion; it differs from blind sampling or global endometrial ablation; what was actually documented is destruction of endometrial lining for bleeding control, not the different evidence of targeted endoscopic removal of uterine polyp.

Question 354

Diseased corneal tissue is excised and replaced with donor corneal tissue. Which procedure best captures the surgeon’s documented action?

  1. Cataract extraction with intraocular lens
  2. Corneal transplantation
  3. Laser peripheral iridotomy
  4. Excision of conjunctival pterygium

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Keratoplasty restores the corneal surface or thickness, distinct from surgery on the internal crystalline lens. Layer depth determines the procedure variant.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Cataract surgery removes the native lens and implants an optical substitute; technique and complexity determine the coding pathway; it is not corneal transplantation; the chart records donor corneal tissue replacing patient's cornea rather than extraction of cloudy natural lens with implant.

C:

Iridotomy makes an iris aperture, commonly for narrow-angle disease; it is not lens extraction or external filtration surgery; the patient record supports donor corneal tissue replacing patient's cornea rather than the alternative finding of laser hole created through peripheral iris.

D:

Excision of conjunctival pterygium is supported by documentation of surface removal of fibrovascular conjunctival growth crossing the cornea, not cataract, trabeculectomy, keratoplasty, or laser iridotomy; here the decisive finding is donor corneal tissue replacing patient's cornea; the defining work for this distractor is absent.

Question 355

Unenhanced abdominal images are followed by contrast-enhanced acquisitions as part of the same protocol. How should the completed examination be classified?

  1. CT without intravenous contrast
  2. CT angiography
  3. CT enterography with oral enteric distention
  4. CT without and with contrast

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Combined noncontrast and contrast phases represent a different CT coding category from a single postcontrast phase. Oral contrast alone does not establish intravenous contrast administration.

Incorrect Answers

A:

CT without contrast uses x-ray cross-sectional acquisition without intravenous enhancement; it is distinct from a postcontrast-only or combined pre/postcontrast study; to select this alternative the report would need CT imaging with no injected contrast, whereas it identifies CT acquired both before and after IV enhancement.

B:

CTA emphasizes vascular lumen by contrast timing and postprocessing; it is not automatically a routine soft-tissue CT with intravenous contrast; the controlling finding is CT acquired both before and after IV enhancement, which is distinct from arterial-phase contrast CT with vessel reconstruction.

C:

Although CT enterography with oral enteric distention may sound adjacent, it denotes specialized bowel CT protocol using intestinal distention rather than an ordinary without-, with-, or multiphase intravenous contrast CT designation; this record documents CT acquired both before and after IV enhancement, which is distinct from that alternative.

Question 356

Cultured cells are examined to count and structurally assess metaphase chromosomes. How should the assay or procedure be identified?

  1. Single-gene sequence analysis
  2. Quantitative gene-expression RT-PCR
  3. Conventional karyotype
  4. Multigene molecular panel

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Karyotyping visualizes chromosome number and large structural rearrangements. It is not a high-resolution microarray or direct gene sequencing test.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Single-gene molecular analysis targets one specified locus rather than a broad panel or chromosomal copy-number assay; the methodology determines code assignment; the distinction is the record’s microscopic metaphase chromosome analysis versus the alternative of sequencing of one named genetic locus.

B:

In Quantitative gene-expression RT-PCR, the work centers on measurement of RNA transcript abundance rather than DNA sequence, multigene panel, microarray copy-number, or chromosome karyotyping; instead, the report records microscopic metaphase chromosome analysis, which supports a different classification.

D:

A multigene panel simultaneously evaluates several relevant genes under one assay design; billing each constituent gene separately may conflict with panel-specific codes; the operative or visit note documents microscopic metaphase chromosome analysis instead of simultaneous testing of multiple related genes.

Question 357

An antibiotic is administered through a vein over a prolonged period using a controlled infusion. Which choice reflects the work actually performed?

  1. Therapeutic IV infusion
  2. Subcutaneous therapeutic injection
  3. Intramuscular therapeutic injection
  4. Therapeutic intravenous hydration

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Intravenous infusion delivers a drug over time, distinct from a rapid push. Sequence and hierarchy rules apply when multiple services occur during one encounter.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Subcutaneous medication administration follows an injection code pathway distinct from intravenous infusion; the supplied drug product may need additional reporting; the distinction is the record’s medication delivered through timed IV infusion versus the alternative of medication injected beneath skin.

C:

Intramuscular therapeutic injection involves delivery of medication into skeletal muscle rather than subcutaneous injection or intravenous push, infusion, or hydration; the note describes medication delivered through timed IV infusion instead, changing the applicable classification.

D:

Hydration reporting requires medical necessity and appropriate time documentation; routine fluid merely keeping a vein open is generally integral to other services; the distinction is the record’s medication delivered through timed IV infusion versus the alternative of timed IV fluid replacement for dehydration.

Question 358

Qualifying physician time beyond the base service threshold is documented in a code family that permits prolonged-time reporting. What evaluation-and-management principle applies?

  1. Transitional care management
  2. Advance care planning
  3. Routine appointment scheduling by clerical staff
  4. Prolonged E/M service

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Prolonged services have code- and payer-specific thresholds; not every long visit permits the same add-on. Do not convert unqualified charting or separately billed work into prolonged time.

Incorrect Answers

A:

TCM requires specified postdischarge coordination, communication, and visit timing; A routine hospital discharge code does not represent the full transition period; to select this alternative the report would need structured care coordination after institutional discharge, whereas it identifies eligible time exceeding base E/M threshold.

B:

Advance care planning is a focused discussion about future treatment choices and may require time and other criteria; it is not inherently a preventive physical examination; to select this alternative the report would need documented shared planning for future medical decisions, whereas it identifies eligible time exceeding base E/M threshold.

C:

Routine appointment scheduling by clerical staff refers to administrative scheduling without qualifying clinician care management, prolonged evaluation, or advance care planning, but the documented clinical work is eligible time exceeding base E/M threshold; choosing it would misclassify the documented encounter.

Question 359

Anesthesia is provided for a catheter-based radiological procedure that has a corresponding anesthesia service family. Which choice fits the described anesthetic work?

  1. Anesthesia for interventional radiology
  2. One anesthetic covering multiple operations
  3. Monitored anesthesia care
  4. Sedation by a nurse without anesthesia practitioner oversight

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Anesthesia coding can use dedicated radiological procedure anesthesia code ranges rather than choosing a general surgical code only by anesthetic technique. The intervention determines selection.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Medicare generally reports one anesthesia code for a continuous anesthesia session unless specific add-on code rules apply; select under applicable highest-base-code guidance; two operations do not automatically mean two complete anesthesia services; the documented detail of anesthesia accompanying radiology procedure prevents classifying it as continuous anesthetic covering multiple operative services.

C:

MAC is an anesthesia service with practitioner responsibility and monitoring, not synonymous with every moderate sedation episode; the procedure and payer rules still guide code and modifier reporting; the reported work involves anesthesia accompanying radiology procedure and does not establish dedicated anesthesia professional furnishing MAC.

D:

Selecting Sedation by a nurse without anesthesia practitioner oversight would require nursing-only sedative administration rather than independently reportable anesthesiologist services or MAC; the actual document states anesthesia accompanying radiology procedure, which distinguishes the correct choice.

Question 360

During endoscopic sinus surgery, the surgeon enlarges the maxillary ostium and removes polypoid tissue from inside that sinus through the opening. Which detail differentiates this operation from an antrostomy alone?

  1. Opening the maxillary sinus without removal of any tissue
  2. Resection of the inferior nasal turbinate alone
  3. A frontal sinus balloon dilation only
  4. Maxillary antrostomy including removal of sinus tissue

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The operative record documents tissue extraction within the sinus cavity, which distinguishes a service that includes tissue removal from one limited to opening the ostium.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The surgeon went beyond opening the sinus by excising abnormal mucosa. Ignoring that work would not reflect the documented procedure.

B:

Turbinate surgery targets intranasal structures and does not equate to maxillary sinus antrostomy with intra-sinus tissue excision.

C:

Frontal sinus balloon dilation occurs at a different sinus location and does not describe tissue removal from the maxillary cavity.

Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Practice Tests