Question 360
During endoscopic sinus surgery, the surgeon enlarges the maxillary ostium and removes polypoid tissue from inside that sinus through the opening. Which detail differentiates this operation from an antrostomy alone?
- Opening the maxillary sinus without removal of any tissue
- Resection of the inferior nasal turbinate alone
- A frontal sinus balloon dilation only
- Maxillary antrostomy including removal of sinus tissue
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:The operative record documents tissue extraction within the sinus cavity, which distinguishes a service that includes tissue removal from one limited to opening the ostium.
Incorrect Answers
A:The surgeon went beyond opening the sinus by excising abnormal mucosa. Ignoring that work would not reflect the documented procedure.
B:Turbinate surgery targets intranasal structures and does not equate to maxillary sinus antrostomy with intra-sinus tissue excision.
C:Frontal sinus balloon dilation occurs at a different sinus location and does not describe tissue removal from the maxillary cavity.
Question 361
The operation reshapes or reconstructs a damaged anatomic structure. How is this condition or technique named?
- Reconstructive -plasty
- Incision or -otomy
- Stoma creation or -ostomy
- Suturing or -rrhaphy
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:The -plasty ending signals surgical reconstruction, correction, or reshaping. Whether tissue is removed incidentally does not change the primary reconstructive objective.
Incorrect Answers
B:The -otomy ending means cutting into a structure; operative intent determines whether another more definitive repair or removal is actually documented; the distinction is the record’s reconstruction or reshaping of anatomy versus the alternative of deliberate surgical incision into a structure.
C:The -ostomy suffix denotes construction of a surgical opening or outlet; it is distinct from temporary incision or excision of that organ; creation of a new surgical opening is not recorded; the evidence points to reconstruction or reshaping of anatomy.
D:In Suturing or -rrhaphy, the work centers on operative suturing of a torn tissue rather than excision, incision, stoma formation, or plastic reconstruction; instead, the report records reconstruction or reshaping of anatomy, which supports a different classification.
Question 362
Systemic venous blood returns to this chamber before crossing the tricuspid valve. What structure matches the given location and function?
- Left ventricle
- Right ventricle
- Right atrium
- Interventricular septum
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:This right-sided receiving chamber accepts the superior and inferior vena cava. It is not the ventricle that ejects blood to the pulmonary artery.
Incorrect Answers
A:Systemic arterial ejection originates from the left ventricle; its thicker muscle reflects the pressure demands of the systemic circulation; the patient record supports receiving systemic venous return rather than the alternative finding of ejecting blood into the aorta.
B:The right-sided pumping chamber sends deoxygenated blood into pulmonary circulation; its outflow is not the aorta; the chart records receiving systemic venous return rather than pumping blood into the pulmonary trunk.
D:The Interventricular septum choice presumes the muscular dividing wall between the two ventricular chambers, not an atrium or ventricle itself; the record instead establishes receiving systemic venous return, making that alternative an inaccurate description.
Question 363
A PTP edit permits modifier use only when separate services are truly supported. Which regulatory concept is implicated?
- NCCI modifier indicator zero
- Procedure-to-procedure edit
- Claim frequency restriction
- NCCI modifier indicator one
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Indicator 1 means a properly supported NCCI-associated modifier may permit separate reporting. It is not blanket authorization to unbundle integral work.
Incorrect Answers
A:Indicator 0 means the edit cannot be overridden by an NCCI-associated modifier; A claimed distinct site does not change the edit indicator; the scenario instead describes modifier-eligible code pair and documented distinction, without demonstrating code pair flagged with modifier indicator 0.
B:A PTP edit identifies a bundled code pair with a modifier indicator governing whether an exception is possible; appending a modifier without distinct clinical circumstances is not valid; the reported work involves modifier-eligible code pair and documented distinction and does not establish same-day code-pair bundling conflict.
C:Claim frequency restriction is supported by documentation of a payer policy on how often a service may be submitted, not an NCCI code-pair edit or unit-based MUE; here the decisive finding is modifier-eligible code pair and documented distinction; the defining work for this distractor is absent.
Question 364
One classification entry accurately captures both an underlying disease and its specified complication. Which rule should the coder apply here?
- Mandatory code extension for an obstetric week
- Combination code
- Placeholder X
- Specific laterality
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:A combination code can describe multiple linked concepts in a single code. The Tabular List and guidelines determine whether another code is still needed.
Incorrect Answers
A:The distinguishing evidence for Mandatory code extension for an obstetric week would be use of a separate gestational-week code when applicable, rather than a seventh-character injury extension or placeholder; the described patient or procedure has one code encompassing disease and complication, not those features.
C:ICD-10-CM uses X as a placeholder in specified code families; omitting the character can shift the seventh character and leave an invalid code structure; the controlling finding is one code encompassing disease and complication, which is distinct from placeholder preserving seventh position.
D:Laterality must follow the documented side when a code offers it; unspecified side is not justified when a reliable side is clearly recorded; what was actually documented is one code encompassing disease and complication, not the different evidence of documented left versus right side.
Question 365
Ultrasound shows gallstones but no gallbladder wall inflammation or duct obstruction. Which choice reflects the diagnostic specificity available?
- Gastroesophageal reflux without esophagitis K21.9
- Cholelithiasis without cholecystitis
- Diverticulosis without diverticulitis or bleeding
- Acute appendicitis
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Calculus without cholecystitis differs from an inflamed gallbladder or an obstructing ductal stone. Clinical documentation controls the more precise classification.
Incorrect Answers
A:K21.9 identifies GERD without esophagitis; the presence of heartburn alone or documented esophageal inflammation may call for different coding; what was actually documented is gallstones without inflammation or obstruction, not the different evidence of reflux disease without esophagitis.
C:Diverticulosis describes mucosal outpouchings without a documented inflammatory episode; A case of diverticulitis or diverticular bleeding is materially different; what was actually documented is gallstones without inflammation or obstruction, not the different evidence of colonic diverticula without inflammation or hemorrhage.
D:Selecting Acute appendicitis would require acute inflammation of the appendix rather than gallstones, reflux, bowel diverticula, or functional bowel symptoms; the actual document states gallstones without inflammation or obstruction, which distinguishes the correct choice.
Question 366
A claim needs a Level II classification for a disposable medical supply. Which supply or modifier designation applies?
- E-series durable medical equipment
- V-series vision and hearing services
- A-series supply codes
- L-series orthotics and prosthetics
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:The A family includes many supplies and transportation-related services, with details determined by the current code set. It is not a universal substitute for drugs or physician procedures.
Incorrect Answers
A:The E-series commonly classifies durable medical equipment, subject to device-specific descriptors; single-use dressings and injectable drugs use other code pathways; the patient record supports disposable medical-supply coding rather than the alternative finding of reusable home medical equipment.
B:The required element for V-series vision and hearing services is a vision or hearing service coded in the appropriate Level II V-series rather than injectable drugs, equipment, prosthetics, or supply families; what is described is disposable medical-supply coding, without evidence for the alternative feature.
D:L codes generally address orthotic and prosthetic devices and related components; they do not themselves document the evaluation or fitting service when separately reportable; the scenario instead describes disposable medical-supply coding, without demonstrating orthotic or prosthetic device classification.
Question 367
Electrodesiccation treats multiple viral warts without surgical excision. Which listed service reflects the actual surgical technique?
- Removal of skin tags
- Destruction of premalignant lesion
- Intralesional injection for a hypertrophic scar
- Destruction of benign lesion
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Benign-lesion destruction uses lesion character and number, with recognized methods including electrosurgery. It does not follow malignant excision or premalignant categories.
Incorrect Answers
A:Skin-tag removal has its own reporting framework based on the documented count and technique; ordinary skin tags are not presumed malignant or treated as routine lesion excisions; to select this alternative the report would need snip removal of acrochordons, whereas it identifies nonexcisional wart destruction.
B:Premalignant destruction coding differs from benign destruction and requires lesion type and count; the absence of an excision specimen matters more than the cryogenic instrument; the reported work involves nonexcisional wart destruction and does not establish destruction of documented actinic keratosis.
C:Intralesional injection for a hypertrophic scar corresponds to injection into a scar rather than destruction, excision, or skin-tag removal; the record specifies nonexcisional wart destruction. Those details establish different classifications.
Question 368
A detached glenoid labrum is fixed to the rim with arthroscopic anchors. Which listed service reflects the actual surgical technique?
- Arthroscopic biceps tenodesis
- Arthroscopic rotator cuff repair
- Arthroscopic capsular release
- Arthroscopic labral repair
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Labral repair restores fibrocartilage attachment on the glenoid. It should not be confused with cuff repair or simple joint inspection.
Incorrect Answers
A:Arthroscopic biceps tenodesis corresponds to fixation of the biceps tendon to bone, not labral repair, cuff repair, decompression, or adhesive capsular release; the record specifies fixation of detached glenoid labrum. Those details establish different classifications.
B:Rotator cuff repair reattaches torn tendon to bone; debridement alone or subacromial decompression does not establish tendon repair; the controlling finding is fixation of detached glenoid labrum, which is distinct from reattachment of torn shoulder cuff tendon.
C:Capsular release treats contracture by releasing restrictive capsule; it differs from labral stabilization, which tightens or reattaches damaged tissue; this clinical evidence establishes fixation of detached glenoid labrum, not surgical division of contracted joint capsule.
Question 369
The bronchial tree is visually examined but no wash, biopsy, or therapeutic maneuver is documented. How should this completed operation be classified?
- Bronchoscopy with forceps biopsy
- Bronchoscopy with cytology brushings
- Diagnostic bronchoscopy only
- Bronchoscopy with lavage
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:A diagnostic bronchoscopy entails endoscopic airway examination alone. It generally is not separately counted when integral to a more extensive bronchoscopic service.
Incorrect Answers
A:Endobronchial biopsy acquires tissue from an airway lesion under direct bronchoscopic visualization; it differs from lavage sampling and needle aspiration of a node; the documented detail of visual bronchoscopic inspection without sampling prevents classifying it as bronchoscopic tissue sampling with forceps.
B:Although Bronchoscopy with cytology brushings may sound adjacent, it denotes cellular sampling using a bronchial brushing device instead of forceps tissue biopsy, needle aspiration, or wash/lavage; this record documents visual bronchoscopic inspection without sampling, which is distinct from that alternative.
D:Bronchoalveolar lavage samples material from distal airways by instilling and retrieving fluid; it is different from simply looking through a scope or taking tissue cores; the operative or visit note documents visual bronchoscopic inspection without sampling instead of endoscopic bronchial fluid instillation and recovery.
Question 370
A surgeon resects an anatomic portion of the liver to remove malignancy. Which anatomical operation is indicated by the described work?
- Laparoscopic liver biopsy
- Percutaneous liver needle biopsy
- Transjugular liver biopsy
- Partial hepatectomy
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Hepatectomy excises a defined portion of liver, with scope controlled by segments and major vascular structures involved. It is not merely needle biopsy.
Incorrect Answers
A:Laparoscopic tissue sampling differs from percutaneous needle access; it is diagnostic and not a definitive segmental liver resection; the operative or visit note documents removal of a named portion of hepatic parenchyma instead of liver tissue biopsy under laparoscopy.
B:Percutaneous biopsy samples liver without a laparoscopic or open surgical exposure; image guidance and technique may be included or separately governed by current codes; this clinical evidence establishes removal of a named portion of hepatic parenchyma, not needle sampling of hepatic parenchyma through skin.
C:The required element for Transjugular liver biopsy is liver tissue sampled through venous access using a transjugular route rather than percutaneous or laparoscopic approach or hepatic resection; what is described is removal of a named portion of hepatic parenchyma, without evidence for the alternative feature.