AAPC CPC (Certified Professional Coder) Practice Test 34

Question 330

The patient receives a custom supportive brace or artificial limb component. Which HCPCS label describes the supplied service?

  1. V-series vision and hearing services
  2. J-series injectable drugs
  3. L-series orthotics and prosthetics
  4. E-series durable medical equipment

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

L codes generally address orthotic and prosthetic devices and related components. They do not themselves document the evaluation or fitting service when separately reportable.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The required element for V-series vision and hearing services is a vision or hearing service coded in the appropriate Level II V-series rather than injectable drugs, equipment, prosthetics, or supply families; what is described is orthotic or prosthetic device classification, without evidence for the alternative feature.

B:

Many J codes identify drugs not otherwise classified in CPT, often billed by specified unit quantity; the administration service may require a separate appropriate code; to select this alternative the report would need drug product measured in HCPCS billing units, whereas it identifies orthotic or prosthetic device classification.

D:

The E-series commonly classifies durable medical equipment, subject to device-specific descriptors; single-use dressings and injectable drugs use other code pathways; the patient record supports orthotic or prosthetic device classification rather than the alternative finding of reusable home medical equipment.

Question 331

A clinician snips several symptomatic acrochordons flush with the skin surface. Which choice most accurately names the work performed?

  1. Removal of skin tags
  2. Intralesional injection for a hypertrophic scar
  3. Destruction of premalignant lesion
  4. Excision of benign cutaneous lesion

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Skin-tag removal has its own reporting framework based on the documented count and technique. Ordinary skin tags are not presumed malignant or treated as routine lesion excisions.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Intralesional injection for a hypertrophic scar corresponds to injection into a scar rather than destruction, excision, or skin-tag removal; the record specifies snip removal of acrochordons. Those details establish different classifications.

C:

Premalignant destruction coding differs from benign destruction and requires lesion type and count; the absence of an excision specimen matters more than the cryogenic instrument; the reported work involves snip removal of acrochordons and does not establish destruction of documented actinic keratosis.

D:

Benign lesion excision depends on location and total excised diameter including margins; simple closure is ordinarily included and should not be separately counted as a second operation; the operative or visit note documents snip removal of acrochordons instead of full-thickness benign lesion removal with margins.

Question 332

High pressure in the lower-leg compartment prompts a deliberate longitudinal fascial incision. Which surgical service corresponds to the documented operation?

  1. Deep-muscle debridement
  2. Compartment-release fasciotomy
  3. Myorrhaphy
  4. Fascial defect suture repair

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Fasciotomy releases restrictive fascia to relieve compartment pressure. It is not synonymous with debridement of necrotic muscle that might occur separately.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Debridement removes nonviable muscle tissue; simply seeing muscle in a deep wound does not establish muscle excision; site and area may affect code classification; actual removal of necrotic skeletal muscle is not recorded; the evidence points to incision of compartment fascia for decompression.

C:

Myorrhaphy repairs muscle tissue directly; it differs from cutting fascia for decompression or rerouting a tendon; repair by suturing muscle belly is not recorded; the evidence points to incision of compartment fascia for decompression.

D:

Fascial defect suture repair reflects surgical closure of a separated fascia layer rather than repair of muscle belly, fasciotomy, or debridement, whereas the clinical note identifies incision of compartment fascia for decompression; the different evidence changes the classification.

Question 333

A long-term catheter travels under skin before entering a central vein and exits through the chest wall. Which choice most accurately names the work performed?

  1. Non-tunneled central venous catheter insertion
  2. Totally implanted venous port
  3. Removal of implanted venous port
  4. Tunneled central venous catheter insertion

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A tunneled line has a protected subcutaneous course, often with a cuff. That design differs from temporary nontunneled access and a totally implanted port.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Non-tunneled central access is typically short-term percutaneous venous access; it differs from implanted ports and devices that traverse a subcutaneous tunnel; the chart records externally exiting central line with subcutaneous tunnel rather than central catheter placed without subcutaneous tunnel.

B:

Implanted ports provide intermittent vascular access through a needle-punctured reservoir; they are not externally exiting tunneled catheters; the patient record supports externally exiting central line with subcutaneous tunnel rather than the alternative finding of implanted reservoir attached to central venous catheter.

C:

Removal of implanted venous port involves explantation of an existing fully implanted port rather than placement of tunneled, nontunneled, implanted, or peripheral central access; the note describes externally exiting central line with subcutaneous tunnel instead, changing the applicable classification.

Question 334

A feeding tube is withdrawn because enteral access is no longer required and the tract is left to close. Which of these operative services matches the completed work?

  1. Surgical jejunostomy tube placement
  2. Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy placement
  3. Established gastrostomy tube exchange
  4. Gastrostomy tube removal

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Removal is not equivalent to initial placement or exchange. Any distinct closure procedure must be supported by what the physician actually performs.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Surgical jejunostomy tube placement is supported by documentation of creation of a small-bowel feeding access rather than exchange, removal, or new placement of a gastric tube; here the decisive finding is withdrawal of no-longer-needed gastric tube; the defining work for this distractor is absent.

B:

New PEG placement creates access for enteral feeding; it should not be confused with a routine exchange through an established tract; the chart records withdrawal of no-longer-needed gastric tube rather than creation of percutaneous gastric feeding access.

C:

Exchange uses established access rather than creating a new gastrostomy; whether endoscopic or fluoroscopic guidance is performed affects reporting details; this clinical evidence establishes withdrawal of no-longer-needed gastric tube, not replacement through mature gastrostomy tract.

Question 335

Near term the clinician manually rotates a breech fetus through the maternal abdominal wall. Which technique is supported by the operative report?

  1. Cervical cerclage
  2. Removal of retained placental tissue
  3. Operative salpingectomy for tubal ectopic pregnancy
  4. External cephalic version

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

External version attempts to change fetal lie without an incision into uterus. This is distinct from operative vaginal extraction or cesarean delivery.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Cerclage reinforces the cervix mechanically; it is not a delivery procedure or amniotic-fluid sampling; the operative or visit note documents manual transabdominal turning of fetus instead of purse-string reinforcement of pregnant cervix.

B:

Removal of retained placental products treats a specific postpartum complication; it must not be presumed to have occurred during every uncomplicated birth; the distinction is the record’s manual transabdominal turning of fetus versus the alternative of postpartum uterine evacuation of retained placenta.

C:

Although Operative salpingectomy for tubal ectopic pregnancy may sound adjacent, it denotes surgical removal of the tube containing an ectopic gestation, distinct from retained placenta evacuation, version, cerclage, or postpartum sterilization; this record documents manual transabdominal turning of fetus, which is distinct from that alternative.

Question 336

A damaged incus and ossicular linkage are reconstructed using a prosthetic bridge. Which procedure name fits the documented anatomical target and method?

  1. Stapedectomy
  2. Ossiculoplasty
  3. Bone-anchored hearing device implantation
  4. Endolymphatic sac decompression

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Ossiculoplasty repairs mechanical sound conduction in the middle ear. It does not place a cochlear electrode or simply open the eardrum for drainage.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Stapes surgery aims to restore ossicular sound conduction in otosclerosis; it is not treatment of cochlear hair-cell loss with an electrode implant; to select this alternative the report would need replacement of fixed stapes transmission mechanism, whereas it identifies reconstruction of middle-ear ossicular chain.

C:

The distinguishing evidence for Bone-anchored hearing device implantation would be attachment of an osseointegrated hearing processor fixture rather than ossicular reconstruction, cochlear electrode insertion, stapedectomy, or endolymphatic sac surgery; the described patient or procedure has reconstruction of middle-ear ossicular chain, not those features.

D:

Sac decompression addresses fluid-pressure pathology of inner ear; it is not repair of the tympanic membrane or cochlear electrical stimulation; the distinction is the record’s reconstruction of middle-ear ossicular chain versus the alternative of decompression of inner-ear endolymphatic sac.

Question 337

An asymptomatic woman receives routine images of both breasts for early cancer detection. Which modality and method fit these imaging details?

  1. Breast MRI for high-risk surveillance
  2. Unilateral diagnostic mammography
  3. Targeted breast ultrasound
  4. Bilateral screening mammography

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Screening mammography is preventive imaging in an asymptomatic patient. A focal symptom or prior suspicious finding changes the exam to diagnostic evaluation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The Breast MRI for high-risk surveillance choice presumes magnetic resonance evaluation instead of x-ray mammography, tomosynthesis, or targeted sonography; the record instead establishes preventive bilateral breast x-ray screening, making that alternative an inaccurate description.

B:

Diagnostic mammography investigates a specific clinical concern, with laterality and technique documented; it differs from general screening without symptoms; what was actually documented is preventive bilateral breast x-ray screening, not the different evidence of focused mammographic evaluation of symptomatic breast.

C:

A limited breast ultrasound targets a specific area; it is not mammographic x-ray imaging or necessarily a full comprehensive breast ultrasound; the controlling finding is preventive bilateral breast x-ray screening, which is distinct from sonographic interrogation of focal breast concern.

Question 338

Aspirated thyroid cells are prepared as cytologic slides for microscopic interpretation. What laboratory analysis is established by these steps?

  1. Flow-cytometric immunophenotyping
  2. Fine-needle aspiration cytology
  3. Surgical pathology tissue examination
  4. Exfoliative cervical cytology

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

FNA cytology assesses cellular material acquired by needle, rather than intact histologic tissue cores. Sampling procedure and professional interpretation may have distinct codes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The required element for Flow-cytometric immunophenotyping is analysis of cellular surface marker expression rather than cytology, histologic tissue examination, or frozen-section consultation; what is described is microscopic assessment of aspirated cells, without evidence for the alternative feature.

C:

Surgical pathology evaluates tissue architecture in a submitted specimen, with level based on specimen type and complexity; it differs from cytology of loose cells; what was actually documented is microscopic assessment of aspirated cells, not the different evidence of fixed excised tissue examined histologically.

D:

Exfoliative cytology studies collected surface cells rather than excised tissue architecture; collection, screening, and interpretation have distinct reporting contexts; the patient record supports microscopic assessment of aspirated cells rather than the alternative finding of epithelial cell specimen prepared for cervical cytology.

Question 339

A clinician conducts a therapeutic session addressing family interactions related to a patient's condition. Which medicine service is represented by these facts?

  1. Group psychotherapy
  2. Psychiatric diagnostic evaluation
  3. Family psychotherapy
  4. Psychological testing with interpretation

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Family psychotherapy targets relational context and patient treatment, with rules for the identified patient’s presence. It is not a group of unrelated patients.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Group psychotherapy uses treatment interactions among multiple patients; it differs from a private individual encounter or one family's focused session; the distinction is the record’s family-based therapeutic intervention for identified patient versus the alternative of psychotherapeutic intervention with multiple patients.

B:

Diagnostic psychiatric evaluation gathers and interprets history and mental status to establish a clinical plan; it is distinct from a timed psychotherapy session; the controlling finding is family-based therapeutic intervention for identified patient, which is distinct from structured diagnostic psychiatric assessment.

D:

Selecting Psychological testing with interpretation would require standardized testing, scoring, and interpretation rather than psychiatric diagnostic interviewing or individual, group, or family psychotherapy; the actual document states family-based therapeutic intervention for identified patient, which distinguishes the correct choice.

Question 340

A physician provides only 20 minutes of qualifying critical care work during the day. Which E/M rule follows from this encounter?

  1. Multiple critical care intervals
  2. Time spent on a separately billed procedure
  3. Critical care ineligible routine monitoring
  4. Critical care below minimum time

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A short critical care interval below the initial reporting minimum generally cannot be reported as the initial critical care code. Another appropriate E/M service may need evaluation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Eligible time from separate critical care episodes on the same date may be summed according to guidelines; time spent on nonqualifying or separately billed work is excluded; to select this alternative the report would need cumulative qualifying critical care time on one date, whereas it identifies critical care minutes below first-code threshold.

B:

Selecting Time spent on a separately billed procedure would require minutes devoted to a distinct billed procedure that must be excluded from critical-care time; the actual document states critical care minutes below first-code threshold, which distinguishes the correct choice.

C:

Physical location in an ICU does not alone meet critical care criteria; the patient's condition and documented clinician work determine eligibility; the documented detail of critical care minutes below first-code threshold prevents classifying it as stable routine ICU observation without critical illness.

Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Practice Tests