Question 410

Network engineers need to apply a standardized route-table update safely to hundreds of accounts. Which change is the most appropriate?

  1. Use VPC-creation EventBridge events to invoke a Lambda policy-check workflow
  2. Route the matching CloudTrail event through EventBridge to a remediation target
  3. Send a CloudWatch alarm to SNS and the incident integration
  4. Orchestrate an approved automation workflow with Step Functions and scoped API operations

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

With this choice, the selected action coordinates retries, sequencing and error handling for network changes; a single manual CLI loop lacks workflow-state and recovery controls, providing repeatable multi-account route-management operations for the network described.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This alternative reacts to new VPC creation events and runs focused automated network checks; a VPC-creation event filter does not detect subsequent security-group modification APIs, so it addresses event-driven VPC-creation governance rather than the required repeatable multi-account route-management operations.

B:

Although this setting maps audited API activity to event-driven response logic, CloudWatch metrics do not by themselves reconstruct the API change request; this concerns near-real-time security-group change response, not the specified repeatable multi-account route-management operations.

C:

The proposed action delivers notifications when the monitored threshold transitions state; a log delivery bucket alone does not send operational pages, supporting automated notification on connectivity failures but leaving repeatable multi-account route-management operations unmet.

Question 411

An international company wants private VIF connectivity to VGWs across different AWS Regions without separate physical circuits. Which AWS networking approach meets this constraint?

  1. Use a transit VIF to a Direct Connect gateway associated with the Transit Gateway
  2. Associate multiple supported VGWs with a Direct Connect gateway
  3. Obtain a supported hosted Direct Connect connection from an AWS partner
  4. Create a Direct Connect private VIF to the target virtual private gateway

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

This configuration enables private VIF reachability to multiple associated virtual private gateways; a DX gateway distributes routing information rather than serving as a general internet router, so it delivers cross-Region private gateway access through DX under the stated constraints.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This approach supplies BGP routing into the transit gateway architecture through a DX gateway; private VIFs attached per-VGW would add repeated VPC-specific connectivity management, which helps with private connectivity to multiple TGW-attached VPCs instead of delivering cross-Region private gateway access through DX.

C:

Although this setting uses a partner-provisioned link instead of an independently installed cross-connect, the provider's port capacity and provisioning terms still determine the connection characteristics; this concerns partner-assisted private hybrid connectivity, not the specified cross-Region private gateway access through DX.

D:

The proposed action exchanges private routing for VPC connectivity over Direct Connect; a public VIF is aimed at public AWS service prefixes instead, supporting private VPC routing on a dedicated connection but leaving cross-Region private gateway access through DX unmet.

Question 412

A team changed the Direct Connect VIF MTU to jumbo frames and then intermittent traffic failures appeared on the customer switch. What is the best next configuration decision?

  1. Permit the relevant path MTU discovery ICMP feedback
  2. Investigate path MTU and adjust MSS clamping or packet size appropriately
  3. Check EFA supported instance, placement group and network prerequisites
  4. Check end-to-end VLAN, router, and host MTU compatibility

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

This configuration verifies every device on the traffic path can process the selected frame size; enabling jumbo MTU on only one interface can create size mismatches, so it delivers valid large-frame transport across the hybrid link under the stated constraints.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed action allows endpoints to learn a workable packet size along the route; blindly enabling jumbo frames on EC2 will not make every intervening hop support them, supporting functioning PMTUD for end-to-end TCP traffic but leaving valid large-frame transport across the hybrid link unmet.

B:

This approach limits TCP segment sizes to fit encapsulated network paths; increasing BGP timers will not repair fragmentation-related black holes, which helps with avoidance of oversized packets across IPsec tunnels instead of delivering valid large-frame transport across the hybrid link.

C:

This alternative validates low-latency ENA/EFA transport assumptions for clustered HPC; ordinary internet-facing ALB routing is not the EFA data path, so it addresses correct placement for low-latency inter-node traffic rather than the required valid large-frame transport across the hybrid link.

Question 413

A managed database connection contains sensitive records and must reject plaintext application sessions. Which change is the most appropriate?

  1. Deploy a managed certificate distribution and renewal workflow to the EC2 web server
  2. Require the database engine's supported TLS connection option and client verification
  3. Implement service-to-service TLS or mTLS according to the threat model
  4. Validate certificate chain and requested hostname in the TLS client

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The approach protects client-to-database data in transit using the service's TLS protocol; encrypted EBS volumes do not encrypt network packets in flight, directly enabling encrypted managed-database application connections in this situation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Although this setting installs renewed certificates in the software that actually terminates TLS, attaching an ACM certificate to an unrelated ALB does not update Nginx on the instance; this concerns maintained TLS identity on customer-managed application servers, not the specified encrypted managed-database application connections.

C:

This approach protects application payloads independently of private route placement; a private IP path does not by itself satisfy an explicit in-transit encryption requirement, which helps with confidentiality within private east-west service traffic instead of delivering encrypted managed-database application connections.

D:

This alternative prevents accepting an encrypted connection to an impersonating server; encryption without peer identity validation remains vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks, so it addresses authenticated outbound HTTPS service communication rather than the required encrypted managed-database application connections.

Question 414

A security dashboard must show both unusually high outbound bytes and the corresponding firewall rule denies. Which AWS networking approach meets this constraint?

  1. Use Resolver DNS Firewall metrics and query logs with an alarm or event pipeline
  2. Analyze VPC Flow Logs with Athena or CloudWatch Logs Insights depending on delivery
  3. Create CloudWatch alarms using relevant firewall metrics or log-derived metrics
  4. Configure Shield event monitoring and its supported notification integration
  5. Correlate CloudWatch network metrics with firewall or flow logs in a unified analysis

Explanation

Correct Answer

E:

This configuration compares traffic volume trends with policy enforcement evidence; one graph of aggregate bytes cannot show whether suspicious flows were denied, so it delivers multi-source explanation for network exfiltration indicators under the stated constraints.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This alternative converts DNS filtering events into a monitored security signal; a public hosted-zone health check does not see VPC resolver policy decisions, so it addresses detectable policy-enforced DNS blocks rather than the required multi-source explanation for network exfiltration indicators.

B:

Although this setting groups traffic metadata by addresses, ports, action and time, CloudTrail event history lacks the packet-level connection counts needed here; this concerns quantitative analysis of suspicious network flows, not the specified multi-source explanation for network exfiltration indicators.

C:

The proposed action evaluates abnormal inspection signals against justified thresholds; storing raw logs without a metric and alarm does not produce an immediate notification, supporting timely notice of traffic-filtering anomalies but leaving multi-source explanation for network exfiltration indicators unmet.

D:

This approach surfaces attack detections from the advanced protection service; request-based application telemetry alone may not identify the service's attack classification, which helps with automatic awareness of observed DDoS attacks instead of delivering multi-source explanation for network exfiltration indicators.

Question 415

An engineer accidentally changes the other VPC's CIDR to overlap its peer and wants to retain the existing direct connection. Which option should the architect select?

  1. Inspect source and destination security groups and NACL rules
  2. Verify the provider's private DNS verification and consumer endpoint DNS settings
  3. Reassess the address plan or migrate the service path to a suitable PrivateLink/NAT pattern
  4. Have the endpoint service provider accept the connection when acceptance is required

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The approach avoids relying on unsupported overlap in a peering topology; route entries cannot disambiguate identical VPC CIDR destinations, directly enabling resilient connectivity after address conflict changes in this situation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This approach distinguishes network authorization from established peering route topology; peer activation and route correctness do not override security-group denial, which helps with permitted instance-level traffic over VPC peering instead of delivering resilient connectivity after address conflict changes.

B:

This alternative checks how a PrivateLink service name maps to local endpoint ENIs; generic public Route 53 records do not necessarily control private endpoint DNS overrides, so it addresses correct private DNS mapping after provider changes rather than the required resilient connectivity after address conflict changes.

D:

The proposed action completes the provider approval needed before endpoint traffic is active; security-group changes do not change the provider's endpoint approval state, supporting accepted private service consumer connection but leaving resilient connectivity after address conflict changes unmet.

Question 416

A client source-based application depends on consecutive connections reaching the same accelerator endpoint where possible. Which AWS networking approach meets this constraint?

  1. Configure Global Accelerator client affinity by source IP
  2. Configure an appropriate accelerator endpoint health check for the application service
  3. Set the Global Accelerator traffic dial for that Region's endpoint group to zero
  4. Adjust the Global Accelerator endpoint weights within that endpoint group

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

With this choice, the selected action maintains endpoint affinity based on the client IP rather than independently distributing every flow; affinity may reduce balancing flexibility and is not an application session store, providing endpoint consistency across a client's connections for the network described.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This approach judges endpoint availability using supported application or transport health observations; an ICMP reply does not demonstrate that the actual listener or health path is healthy, which helps with routing only to endpoints that can serve the workload instead of delivering endpoint consistency across a client's connections.

C:

This alternative controls the fraction of traffic sent to an endpoint group by Region; the change affects new routing decisions rather than draining an established application connection by force, so it addresses region-wide traffic evacuation during maintenance rather than the required endpoint consistency across a client's connections.

D:

Although this setting influences distribution among healthy endpoints in the same regional group, endpoint weights and regional traffic dials operate at different scopes; this concerns uneven traffic allocation between endpoints, not the specified endpoint consistency across a client's connections.

Question 417

An infrastructure team wants application accounts to use common networking definitions managed centrally. Which change is the most appropriate?

  1. Review a CloudFormation change set before execution
  2. Build reusable AWS CDK constructs with context-specific parameters
  3. Define reusable AWS CloudFormation networking templates and parameters
  4. Publish versioned infrastructure modules with controlled inputs and outputs

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The approach establishes a repeatable shared contract for network composition; duplication of unversioned snippets makes later policy corrections inconsistent, directly enabling governance of reusable IaC network resources in this situation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Although this setting previews planned stack mutations and replacement behavior, an immediate update hides the proposed resource transition until it is underway; this concerns controlled network infrastructure change review, not the specified governance of reusable IaC network resources.

B:

The proposed action synthesizes infrastructure definitions from code for consistent deployments; hardcoded account-specific IDs weaken portability, supporting programmatic reuse of network infrastructure components but leaving governance of reusable IaC network resources unmet.

C:

This approach deploys VPC, subnet, routing and related resources as declarative stacks; console-only manual changes increase configuration drift and inconsistency, which helps with reproducible multi-account network construction instead of delivering governance of reusable IaC network resources.

Question 418

An organization wants signed answer integrity but its private hosted zone cannot use public hosted-zone signing the same way. Which change is the most appropriate?

  1. Enable Route 53 public hosted-zone DNSSEC signing and create the parent chain of trust
  2. Use an appropriately supported encrypted DNS transport such as DNS-over-TLS or DNS-over-HTTPS in the client-resolver design
  3. Correct the DS and DNSKEY chain-of-trust relationship
  4. Apply DNSSEC where supported on public authoritative zones and assess private resolver trust separately

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

This configuration respects differences between private DNS scope and public authoritative signing; assuming identical DNSSEC hosting features for all private zones can produce an unsupported configuration, so it delivers correctly scoped DNS integrity controls under the stated constraints.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This alternative authenticates the origin and integrity of supported DNS records for validating resolvers; DNSSEC signs data but does not encrypt the DNS question or response contents, so it addresses DNSSEC-authenticated public DNS answers rather than the required correctly scoped DNS integrity controls.

B:

Although this setting encrypts DNS transport between compatible participating endpoints, DNSSEC validation by itself cannot hide DNS names from observers; this concerns private DNS query content in transit, not the specified correctly scoped DNS integrity controls.

C:

The proposed action restores cryptographic delegation consistency for the zone; changing application A records alone cannot repair a mismatched signer chain, supporting successful DNSSEC validation by external resolvers but leaving correctly scoped DNS integrity controls unmet.

Question 419

An overlay engineer created a Connect attachment but no GRE peer forms because peer addresses are reversed. How should this network requirement be implemented?

  1. Enable compatible ECMP and advertise equivalent routes across the Connect peers
  2. Configure the BGP peer ASN and inside adjacency parameters for Connect
  3. Confirm the VPC route and security controls for the Connect underlay
  4. Create a Transit Gateway Connect attachment and its Connect peer
  5. Correct the Connect peer's TGW and appliance GRE endpoint addresses

Explanation

Correct Answer

E:

The approach identifies the two outer tunnel endpoints used for GRE encapsulation; BGP configuration on its own cannot fix the GRE underlay endpoint mismatch, directly enabling valid transit Connect tunnel endpoint addressing in this situation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This approach lets eligible Connect paths distribute flows according to transit gateway multipath rules; per-packet reordering should not be assumed as a balancing model, which helps with scalable equal-cost SD-WAN transit instead of delivering valid transit Connect tunnel endpoint addressing.

B:

This alternative exchanges supported customer route prefixes across the GRE peer; traffic can be encapsulated even while no usable BGP routes are learned, so it addresses route learning over the established Connect overlay rather than the required valid transit Connect tunnel endpoint addressing.

C:

Although this setting permits GRE outer packets to traverse the parent transit connectivity, no BGP policy can build a session before the GRE underlay is reachable; this concerns underlying IP reachability for Connect peer establishment, not the specified valid transit Connect tunnel endpoint addressing.

D:

The proposed action establishes GRE connectivity and BGP control plane between the appliance and TGW; an ordinary VPC attachment cannot replace the Connect peer's overlay interfaces, supporting SD-WAN GRE/BGP integration with the transit gateway but leaving valid transit Connect tunnel endpoint addressing unmet.

Question 420

A network router and DX port both support MACsec but traffic fails when the key settings are inconsistent. What is the most suitable design or configuration?

  1. Align MACsec connectivity association keys and chosen encryption parameters
  2. Verify current MACsec eligibility and choose an approved dedicated connection when needed
  3. Add TLS or IPsec where end-to-end encryption is required
  4. Combine diverse physical connections with supported MACsec or suitable IPsec overlays

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The approach ensures the Ethernet peers can establish compatible link encryption; BGP route preferences are irrelevant until the encrypted physical link works, directly enabling successful authenticated MACsec operation in this situation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This approach selects a DX connection model that actually supports required physical-link cryptography; hosted connection capabilities are not equivalent to every dedicated-port MACsec option, which helps with supported link-layer encryption deployment instead of delivering successful authenticated MACsec operation.

C:

This alternative encrypts traffic at a higher protocol layer beyond the individual Ethernet link; MACsec protects the applicable physical Ethernet hop rather than all subsequent routes, so it addresses application or tunnel confidentiality beyond DX link encryption rather than the required successful authenticated MACsec operation.

D:

Although this setting separates circuit redundancy from cryptographic protection, using a single encrypted link still leaves a physical single point of failure; this concerns resilient encrypted hybrid connectivity, not the specified successful authenticated MACsec operation.

AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Practice Tests