ACFE CFE - Investigation (Certified Fraud Examiner - Investigation) Practice Test 35

Question 340

A home appears in a subsidiary's name rather than an individual's. Which investigative method is best suited to identify property held through a legal entity?

  1. Search the appropriate land or deed registry
  2. Review land-record liens and registered security interests
  3. Obtain recorded conveyances and transfer dates
  4. Link title records to corporate ownership information
  5. Use cadastral identifiers and official property search results

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Combining records may expose indirect interests. Legal title and ultimate beneficial control are distinct questions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Registered title may identify the legal holder and recorded interests; that is the consideration when a team tries to check recorded ownership of a suspect property. It does not necessarily establish who supplied the purchase funds; the required investigative decision is to identify property held through a legal entity.

B:

Recorded encumbrances can help reconstruct financing; its purpose in an investigation is to identify a property's recorded mortgage. They may not show the current debt balance or beneficial owner; the immediate evidentiary task here is to identify property held through a legal entity.

C:

Title chronology may establish an asset movement; that is the consideration when a team tries to trace a recent transfer of land title. The reason for the sale and consideration require separate evidence; the immediate evidentiary task here is to identify property held through a legal entity.

E:

Parcel identifiers help avoid homonymous owners and incorrect addresses; its purpose in an investigation is to verify that a claimed parcel exists. Geographic databases may have gaps or delays; it serves another purpose, not the immediate need to identify property held through a legal entity.

Question 341

A whistleblower cites revenue claims allegedly made in an annual report. Which procedure would best allow investigators to verify an issuer's public financial filing?

  1. Locate the authoritative prospectus or filed offering materials
  2. Inspect related-party notes and governance filings
  3. Review ownership disclosures applicable to the issuer
  4. Retrieve the original securities-regulator filing and version

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

First-party filings preserve disclosed figures and context. A reposted excerpt may omit qualifications or amendments.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The original document shows what representations were actually made; this concerns the distinct task of deciding how to check whether an offering document made a claimed representation. An agent's paraphrase may be inaccurate or incomplete; the priority under these facts is to verify an issuer's public financial filing.

B:

Such disclosures may clarify known relationships and approvals; this responds to a different operational need to assess a director's declared related-party transactions. Absence of disclosure is a lead, not standalone proof of concealment; it does not settle how to verify an issuer's public financial filing in this situation.

C:

Substantial-holding reports can reveal reported interests; this concerns the distinct task of deciding how to identify a disclosed major shareholder. Disclosure thresholds and reporting dates constrain completeness; it would not by itself meet the stated need to verify an issuer's public financial filing.

Question 342

A public company has an investor alleged to be related to a procurement official. How should the examiner proceed to identify a disclosed major shareholder?

  1. Review ownership disclosures applicable to the issuer
  2. Search the official exclusion or debarment register
  3. Locate the authoritative prospectus or filed offering materials
  4. Inspect related-party notes and governance filings
  5. Search the regulator's official decisions and disciplinary register
  6. Retrieve the original securities-regulator filing and version

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Substantial-holding reports can reveal reported interests. Disclosure thresholds and reporting dates constrain completeness.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Published sanctions may prevent awards in specified programs; that is the consideration when a team tries to check a contractor's public procurement debarment status. Names and effective periods must be matched accurately; the investigative step being tested here is how to identify a disclosed major shareholder.

C:

The original document shows what representations were actually made; that principle applies when the team needs to check whether an offering document made a claimed representation. An agent's paraphrase may be inaccurate or incomplete; the record instead calls for an action that would identify a disclosed major shareholder.

D:

Such disclosures may clarify known relationships and approvals; it protects the separate goal to assess a director's declared related-party transactions. Absence of disclosure is a lead, not standalone proof of concealment; it serves another purpose, not the immediate need to identify a disclosed major shareholder.

E:

Regulatory orders may state findings, penalties, and current status; this addresses a different question: how to identify publicly disclosed enforcement action. News accounts cannot reliably replace the decision's text; it does not settle how to identify a disclosed major shareholder in this situation.

F:

First-party filings preserve disclosed figures and context; that principle applies when the team needs to verify an issuer's public financial filing. A reposted excerpt may omit qualifications or amendments; it does not address the specific requirement to identify a disclosed major shareholder.

Question 343

An auditor notices an unusual payment to a company associated with a board member. Which response most directly enables the examiner to assess a director's declared related-party transactions?

  1. Locate the authoritative prospectus or filed offering materials
  2. Inspect related-party notes and governance filings
  3. Retrieve the original securities-regulator filing and version
  4. Examine ownership disclosures applicable to the issuer

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Such disclosures may clarify known relationships and approvals. Absence of disclosure is a lead, not standalone proof of concealment.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The original document shows what representations were actually made; this is primarily relevant when the objective is to check whether an offering document made a claimed representation. An agent's paraphrase may be inaccurate or incomplete; the required investigative decision is to assess a director's declared related-party transactions.

C:

First-party filings preserve disclosed figures and context; this is primarily relevant when the objective is to verify an issuer's public financial filing. A reposted excerpt may omit qualifications or amendments; the record instead calls for an action that would assess a director's declared related-party transactions.

D:

Substantial-holding reports can reveal reported interests; that principle applies when the team needs to identify a disclosed major shareholder. Disclosure thresholds and reporting dates constrain completeness; the immediate evidentiary task here is to assess a director's declared related-party transactions.

Question 344

A sales agent says an investment brochure guaranteed fixed returns. Which action addresses the primary investigative need to check whether an offering document made a claimed representation?

  1. Search the regulator's official decisions and disciplinary register
  2. Inspect related-party notes and governance filings
  3. Retrieve the original securities-regulator filing and version
  4. Review ownership disclosures applicable to the issuer
  5. Locate the authoritative prospectus or filed offering materials

Explanation

Correct Answer

E:

The original document shows what representations were actually made. An agent's paraphrase may be inaccurate or incomplete.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Regulatory orders may state findings, penalties, and current status; it supports the separate objective to identify publicly disclosed enforcement action. News accounts cannot reliably replace the decision's text; the record instead calls for an action that would check whether an offering document made a claimed representation.

B:

Such disclosures may clarify known relationships and approvals; this concerns the distinct task of deciding how to assess a director's declared related-party transactions. Absence of disclosure is a lead, not standalone proof of concealment; the investigative step being tested here is how to check whether an offering document made a claimed representation.

C:

First-party filings preserve disclosed figures and context; it can be useful for efforts to verify an issuer's public financial filing. A reposted excerpt may omit qualifications or amendments; the current question is about how to check whether an offering document made a claimed representation.

D:

Substantial-holding reports can reveal reported interests; this is primarily relevant when the objective is to identify a disclosed major shareholder. Disclosure thresholds and reporting dates constrain completeness; the record instead calls for an action that would check whether an offering document made a claimed representation.

Question 345

A compliance investigator needs to know whether a broker was formally sanctioned. Which option best supports the objective to identify publicly disclosed enforcement action?

  1. Locate the authoritative prospectus or filed offering materials
  2. Search the regulator's official decisions and disciplinary register
  3. Retrieve the original securities-regulator filing and version
  4. Review ownership disclosures applicable to the issuer

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Regulatory orders may state findings, penalties, and current status. News accounts cannot reliably replace the decision's text.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The original document shows what representations were actually made; it can be useful for efforts to check whether an offering document made a claimed representation. An agent's paraphrase may be inaccurate or incomplete; this case asks for a means to identify publicly disclosed enforcement action instead.

C:

First-party filings preserve disclosed figures and context; this addresses a different question: how to verify an issuer's public financial filing. A reposted excerpt may omit qualifications or amendments; the current question is about how to identify publicly disclosed enforcement action.

D:

Substantial-holding reports can reveal reported interests; it can be useful for efforts to identify a disclosed major shareholder. Disclosure thresholds and reporting dates constrain completeness; that would leave unresolved the present need to identify publicly disclosed enforcement action.

Question 346

A consultant advertises a regulated certification that is a prerequisite to a contract. Which investigative method is best suited to verify professional licensure in a relevant jurisdiction?

  1. Search the official exclusion or debarment register
  2. Match entity name, license number, and regulator contact details
  3. Check the issuing regulator's license lookup and status dates
  4. Review public restrictions and disciplinary orders from the licensing body

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A valid professional listing can establish current or past authority. A business card alone cannot verify a protected credential.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Published sanctions may prevent awards in specified programs; this is a sensible safeguard where the issue is to check a contractor's public procurement debarment status. Names and effective periods must be matched accurately; it does not address the specific requirement to verify professional licensure in a relevant jurisdiction.

B:

Clone firms may imitate genuine registered businesses; it can be useful for efforts to confirm a licensed intermediary's legal identity. Multiple identifiers help distinguish the entity actually making the offer; the examiner still needs to verify professional licensure in a relevant jurisdiction.

D:

Some licenses carry conditions or suspensions; it belongs to a different stage of work: trying to identify disciplinary restrictions on a licensed provider. The operative order determines the scope of professional permission; the priority under these facts is to verify professional licensure in a relevant jurisdiction.

Question 347

A payroll adviser says their authorization has no limitations. What should the examiner select to identify disciplinary restrictions on a licensed provider?

  1. Review public restrictions and disciplinary orders from the licensing body
  2. Match entity name, license number, and regulator contact details
  3. Consult the relevant charity or tax-exempt entity register
  4. Check the issuing regulator's license lookup and status dates

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Some licenses carry conditions or suspensions. The operative order determines the scope of professional permission.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Clone firms may imitate genuine registered businesses; this addresses a different question: how to confirm a licensed intermediary's legal identity. Multiple identifiers help distinguish the entity actually making the offer; the immediate evidentiary task here is to identify disciplinary restrictions on a licensed provider.

C:

Public status can establish registration, but the claimed procurement exemption depends on separate rules; it protects the separate goal to verify a charitable organization's public status. Avoid treating registration as blanket eligibility; it serves another purpose, not the immediate need to identify disciplinary restrictions on a licensed provider.

D:

A valid professional listing can establish current or past authority; that is the consideration when a team tries to verify professional licensure in a relevant jurisdiction. A business card alone cannot verify a protected credential; it does not settle how to identify disciplinary restrictions on a licensed provider in this situation.

Question 348

A bidder declares it is eligible for government contracts despite a rumor of exclusion. What should be done to check a contractor's public procurement debarment status?

  1. Match entity name, license number, and regulator contact details
  2. Consult the relevant charity or tax-exempt entity register
  3. Check the issuing regulator's license lookup and status dates
  4. Review public restrictions and disciplinary orders from the licensing body
  5. Search the official exclusion or debarment register

Explanation

Correct Answer

E:

Published sanctions may prevent awards in specified programs. Names and effective periods must be matched accurately.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Clone firms may imitate genuine registered businesses; it supports the separate objective to confirm a licensed intermediary's legal identity. Multiple identifiers help distinguish the entity actually making the offer; it serves another purpose, not the immediate need to check a contractor's public procurement debarment status.

B:

Public status can establish registration, but the claimed procurement exemption depends on separate rules; this concerns the distinct task of deciding how to verify a charitable organization's public status. Avoid treating registration as blanket eligibility; this case asks for a means to check a contractor's public procurement debarment status instead.

C:

A valid professional listing can establish current or past authority; this is a sensible safeguard where the issue is to verify professional licensure in a relevant jurisdiction. A business card alone cannot verify a protected credential; the priority under these facts is to check a contractor's public procurement debarment status.

D:

Some licenses carry conditions or suspensions; this responds to a different operational need to identify disciplinary restrictions on a licensed provider. The operative order determines the scope of professional permission; that would leave unresolved the present need to check a contractor's public procurement debarment status.

Question 349

A vendor claims invoices qualify for a special nonprofit procurement exemption. Which action would most reliably help the team to verify a charitable organization's public status?

  1. Search the official exclusion or debarment register
  2. Consult the relevant charity or tax-exempt entity register
  3. Review public restrictions and disciplinary orders from the licensing body
  4. Check the issuing regulator's license lookup and status dates

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Public status can establish registration, but the claimed procurement exemption depends on separate rules. Avoid treating registration as blanket eligibility.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Published sanctions may prevent awards in specified programs; it describes an action suited to check a contractor's public procurement debarment status. Names and effective periods must be matched accurately; it does not settle how to verify a charitable organization's public status in this situation.

C:

Some licenses carry conditions or suspensions; it protects the separate goal to identify disciplinary restrictions on a licensed provider. The operative order determines the scope of professional permission; the record instead calls for an action that would verify a charitable organization's public status.

D:

A valid professional listing can establish current or past authority; it describes an action suited to verify professional licensure in a relevant jurisdiction. A business card alone cannot verify a protected credential; the investigative step being tested here is how to verify a charitable organization's public status.

Question 350

An investment proposal uses a trade name similar to an authorized firm's name. What would be the most defensible approach to confirm a licensed intermediary's legal identity?

  1. Check the issuing regulator's license lookup and status dates
  2. Seek guidance from the relevant charity or tax-exempt entity register
  3. Review public restrictions and disciplinary orders from the licensing body
  4. Match entity name, license number, and regulator contact details

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Clone firms may imitate genuine registered businesses. Multiple identifiers help distinguish the entity actually making the offer.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A valid professional listing can establish current or past authority; its purpose in an investigation is to verify professional licensure in a relevant jurisdiction. A business card alone cannot verify a protected credential; it is not a substitute for a step that would confirm a licensed intermediary's legal identity.

B:

Public status can establish registration, but the claimed procurement exemption depends on separate rules; that principle applies when the team needs to verify a charitable organization's public status. Avoid treating registration as blanket eligibility; the record instead calls for an action that would confirm a licensed intermediary's legal identity.

C:

Some licenses carry conditions or suspensions; this concerns the distinct task of deciding how to identify disciplinary restrictions on a licensed provider. The operative order determines the scope of professional permission; it serves another purpose, not the immediate need to confirm a licensed intermediary's legal identity.

Certified Fraud Examiner - Investigation (CFE - Investigation) Practice Tests