ACFE CFE - Investigation (Certified Fraud Examiner - Investigation) Practice Test 33

Question 320

Investigators collect years of private posts from coworkers of a named suspect. Which response most directly enables the examiner to avoid excessive passive monitoring of unrelated accounts?

  1. Remove unnecessary identifiers and apply approved security controls
  2. Preserve message metadata and corroborate account attribution
  3. Restrict collection to relevant lawful sources and time periods
  4. Capture the page, URL, timestamp, and relevant context lawfully
  5. Refuse credential misuse and obtain lawful access

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Covert social-media work must remain proportionate. Broad indiscriminate collection can add privacy risk without meaningful probative value.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Operational security limits exposure of agents and sources; this responds to a different operational need to protect an agent's digital operational security. Poor account setup can compromise an assignment before evidence is gathered; it does not address the specific requirement to avoid excessive passive monitoring of unrelated accounts.

B:

A displayed username may be spoofed or shared; it supports the separate objective to validate an undercover social-media profile's evidence. Technical and external evidence should link the message to an actual actor; that would leave unresolved the present need to avoid excessive passive monitoring of unrelated accounts.

D:

Online material can disappear or change; it can be useful for efforts to preserve a public forum posting before deletion. Source attribution and capture details help later assess authenticity; the investigative step being tested here is how to avoid excessive passive monitoring of unrelated accounts.

E:

Private digital spaces are not open-source intelligence merely because they are online; this addresses a different question: how to avoid unauthorized access to a private group. Access authority and privacy remain essential; it does not address the specific requirement to avoid excessive passive monitoring of unrelated accounts.

Question 321

A week-long operation yielded videos, messages, and paper notes held by several agents. Which next step best helps the team to inventory recordings after undercover deployment?

  1. Implement an agreed safe disengagement and record outstanding risks
  2. Apply restricted retention and secure disposal rules as appropriate
  3. Seek source corroboration and state the evidentiary limitations
  4. Reconcile exhibits against collection logs and custodians

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A closeout inventory identifies missing or duplicate material. It supports continuity from collection to analysis.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The end of an assignment does not erase safety or confidentiality concerns; its purpose in an investigation is to deactivate an informant relationship safely. Planned closure limits continuing contact and exposure; the priority under these facts is to inventory recordings after undercover deployment.

B:

Informant information can remain sensitive after active operations end; this addresses a different question: how to protect confidential source data after a case closes. Access and destruction must follow legal holds and approved policy; it does not settle how to inventory recordings after undercover deployment in this situation.

C:

An uncorroborated account should not be overstated; it describes an action suited to assess whether covert findings were independently corroborated. Other communications, transaction evidence, or credible witnesses may strengthen the finding; it would not by itself meet the stated need to inventory recordings after undercover deployment.

Question 322

A temporary source wants to stop providing information after a completed investigation. What action should the investigation team take to deactivate an informant relationship safely?

  1. Implement an agreed safe disengagement and record outstanding risks
  2. Disable and document termination under the authorized plan
  3. Apply restricted retention and secure disposal rules as appropriate
  4. Reconcile exhibits against collection logs and custodians

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The end of an assignment does not erase safety or confidentiality concerns. Planned closure limits continuing contact and exposure.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Continuing collection without a current need can become disproportionate or unlawful; it supports the separate objective to remove surveillance infrastructure after the approved period. A stop decision should be auditable; it would not by itself meet the stated need to deactivate an informant relationship safely.

C:

Informant information can remain sensitive after active operations end; it supports the separate objective to protect confidential source data after a case closes. Access and destruction must follow legal holds and approved policy; the facts presented call first for a way to deactivate an informant relationship safely.

D:

A closeout inventory identifies missing or duplicate material; it protects the separate goal to inventory recordings after undercover deployment. It supports continuity from collection to analysis; the examiner still needs to deactivate an informant relationship safely.

Question 323

A hidden camera remains active after the defined objective was met. Which investigative method is best suited to remove surveillance infrastructure after the approved period?

  1. Apply restricted retention and secure disposal rules as appropriate
  2. Cross-check exhibits against collection logs and custodians
  3. Disable and document termination under the authorized plan
  4. Implement an agreed safe disengagement and record outstanding risks

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Continuing collection without a current need can become disproportionate or unlawful. A stop decision should be auditable.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Informant information can remain sensitive after active operations end; that is the consideration when a team tries to protect confidential source data after a case closes. Access and destruction must follow legal holds and approved policy; the investigative step being tested here is how to remove surveillance infrastructure after the approved period.

B:

A closeout inventory identifies missing or duplicate material; this concerns the distinct task of deciding how to inventory recordings after undercover deployment. It supports continuity from collection to analysis; that would leave unresolved the present need to remove surveillance infrastructure after the approved period.

D:

The end of an assignment does not erase safety or confidentiality concerns; this distinction matters when investigators must deactivate an informant relationship safely. Planned closure limits continuing contact and exposure; the examiner still needs to remove surveillance infrastructure after the approved period.

Question 324

A single undercover agent reports a bribe proposal but made no contemporaneous record. What should the examiner select to assess whether covert findings were independently corroborated?

  1. Reconcile exhibits against collection logs and custodians
  2. Implement an agreed safe disengagement and record outstanding risks
  3. Apply restricted retention and secure disposal rules as appropriate
  4. Specify observable events, limits, and stopping conditions
  5. Disable and document termination under the authorized plan
  6. Seek source corroboration and state the evidentiary limitations

Explanation

Correct Answer

F:

An uncorroborated account should not be overstated. Other communications, transaction evidence, or credible witnesses may strengthen the finding.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A closeout inventory identifies missing or duplicate material; that principle applies when the team needs to inventory recordings after undercover deployment. It supports continuity from collection to analysis; it does not address the specific requirement to assess whether covert findings were independently corroborated.

B:

The end of an assignment does not erase safety or confidentiality concerns; that is why it can help to deactivate an informant relationship safely. Planned closure limits continuing contact and exposure; the facts presented call first for a way to assess whether covert findings were independently corroborated.

C:

Informant information can remain sensitive after active operations end; this is a sensible safeguard where the issue is to protect confidential source data after a case closes. Access and destruction must follow legal holds and approved policy; the priority under these facts is to assess whether covert findings were independently corroborated.

D:

Clear objectives make covert activity manageable and auditable; this concerns the distinct task of deciding how to define clear objectives for an undercover assignment. An open-ended mission can drift into irrelevant collection or unsafe exposure; that would leave unresolved the present need to assess whether covert findings were independently corroborated.

E:

Continuing collection without a current need can become disproportionate or unlawful; that is the consideration when a team tries to remove surveillance infrastructure after the approved period. A stop decision should be auditable; this case asks for a means to assess whether covert findings were independently corroborated instead.

Question 325

Source identities and payment records remain in a general shared folder. What should be done to protect confidential source data after a case closes?

  1. Apply restricted retention and secure disposal rules as appropriate
  2. Implement an agreed safe disengagement and record outstanding risks
  3. Cross-check exhibits against collection logs and custodians
  4. Seek source corroboration and state the evidentiary limitations

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Informant information can remain sensitive after active operations end. Access and destruction must follow legal holds and approved policy.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The end of an assignment does not erase safety or confidentiality concerns; it belongs to a different stage of work: trying to deactivate an informant relationship safely. Planned closure limits continuing contact and exposure; it does not settle how to protect confidential source data after a case closes in this situation.

C:

A closeout inventory identifies missing or duplicate material; this is primarily relevant when the objective is to inventory recordings after undercover deployment. It supports continuity from collection to analysis; the record instead calls for an action that would protect confidential source data after a case closes.

D:

An uncorroborated account should not be overstated; its purpose in an investigation is to assess whether covert findings were independently corroborated. Other communications, transaction evidence, or credible witnesses may strengthen the finding; that would leave unresolved the present need to protect confidential source data after a case closes.

Question 326

A vendor invoice names an unfamiliar legal entity with a registration number. Which response most directly enables the examiner to identify a company's legal existence?

  1. Retrieve historical corporate name-change records
  2. Inspect official director and officer filings for the relevant date
  3. Compare business registry addresses and independent occupancy information
  4. Check the official business registry for current and historical filings

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Corporate registries may establish incorporation details and authorized filings. Existence alone does not prove a supplier performed the billed work.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Historical filings can connect different trade identities to one legal entity; this addresses a different question: how to trace changes in a shell-company name. A recent name change alone does not show fraud; it does not address the specific requirement to identify a company's legal existence.

B:

Recorded appointments can help test a claimed role; this distinction matters when investigators must identify an entity's registered officers. Filing timing and accuracy should be checked before treating a registry entry as definitive; this case asks for a means to identify a company's legal existence instead.

C:

A shared address may indicate common services or relationships; that is why it can help to identify a disclosed registered address. Corroboration is needed before inferring a sham entity; it does not address the specific requirement to identify a company's legal existence.

Question 327

A contractor's proposal lists a director whose name differs from recent correspondence. Which action addresses the primary investigative need to identify an entity's registered officers?

  1. Check the official business registry for current and historical filings
  2. Inspect official director and officer filings for the relevant date
  3. Compare business registry addresses and independent occupancy information
  4. Obtain historical corporate name-change records

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Recorded appointments can help test a claimed role. Filing timing and accuracy should be checked before treating a registry entry as definitive.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Corporate registries may establish incorporation details and authorized filings; this addresses a different question: how to identify a company's legal existence. Existence alone does not prove a supplier performed the billed work; the required investigative decision is to identify an entity's registered officers.

C:

A shared address may indicate common services or relationships; it belongs to a different stage of work: trying to identify a disclosed registered address. Corroboration is needed before inferring a sham entity; it would not by itself meet the stated need to identify an entity's registered officers.

D:

Historical filings can connect different trade identities to one legal entity; it supports the separate objective to trace changes in a shell-company name. A recent name change alone does not show fraud; it does not settle how to identify an entity's registered officers in this situation.

Question 328

A suspicious supplier appears to have changed its name twice shortly before receiving payments. Which option best supports the objective to trace changes in a shell-company name?

  1. Compare business registry addresses and independent occupancy information
  2. Review available ownership filings and supporting independent records
  3. Inspect official director and officer filings for the relevant date
  4. Check the official business registry for current and historical filings
  5. Retrieve historical corporate name-change records

Explanation

Correct Answer

E:

Historical filings can connect different trade identities to one legal entity. A recent name change alone does not show fraud.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A shared address may indicate common services or relationships; this responds to a different operational need to identify a disclosed registered address. Corroboration is needed before inferring a sham entity; the priority under these facts is to trace changes in a shell-company name.

B:

Public ownership details may reveal relationships, subject to disclosure limits; it protects the separate goal to inspect a company's publicly reported ownership. Nominees and incomplete registries can obscure ultimate control; the facts presented call first for a way to trace changes in a shell-company name.

C:

Recorded appointments can help test a claimed role; that is why it can help to identify an entity's registered officers. Filing timing and accuracy should be checked before treating a registry entry as definitive; the immediate evidentiary task here is to trace changes in a shell-company name.

D:

Corporate registries may establish incorporation details and authorized filings; it supports the separate objective to identify a company's legal existence. Existence alone does not prove a supplier performed the billed work; the priority under these facts is to trace changes in a shell-company name.

Question 329

Several vendors list the same suite number on invoices and tender forms. Which technique best fits the need to identify a disclosed registered address?

  1. Inspect official director and officer filings for the relevant date
  2. Check the official business registry for current and historical filings
  3. Compare business registry addresses and independent occupancy information
  4. Review available ownership filings and supporting independent records

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A shared address may indicate common services or relationships. Corroboration is needed before inferring a sham entity.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Recorded appointments can help test a claimed role; it belongs to a different stage of work: trying to identify an entity's registered officers. Filing timing and accuracy should be checked before treating a registry entry as definitive; that would leave unresolved the present need to identify a disclosed registered address.

B:

Corporate registries may establish incorporation details and authorized filings; that is the consideration when a team tries to identify a company's legal existence. Existence alone does not prove a supplier performed the billed work; the immediate evidentiary task here is to identify a disclosed registered address.

D:

Public ownership details may reveal relationships, subject to disclosure limits; this concerns the distinct task of deciding how to inspect a company's publicly reported ownership. Nominees and incomplete registries can obscure ultimate control; the current question is about how to identify a disclosed registered address.

Question 330

Investigators suspect a purchasing manager is linked to a bidding supplier. What is the strongest investigative approach to inspect a company's publicly reported ownership?

  1. Compare business registry addresses and independent occupancy information
  2. Review available ownership filings and supporting independent records
  3. Check the official business registry for current and historical filings
  4. Examine official director and officer filings for the relevant date

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Public ownership details may reveal relationships, subject to disclosure limits. Nominees and incomplete registries can obscure ultimate control.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A shared address may indicate common services or relationships; it protects the separate goal to identify a disclosed registered address. Corroboration is needed before inferring a sham entity; that would leave unresolved the present need to inspect a company's publicly reported ownership.

C:

Corporate registries may establish incorporation details and authorized filings; this is a sensible safeguard where the issue is to identify a company's legal existence. Existence alone does not prove a supplier performed the billed work; the priority under these facts is to inspect a company's publicly reported ownership.

D:

Recorded appointments can help test a claimed role; this responds to a different operational need to identify an entity's registered officers. Filing timing and accuracy should be checked before treating a registry entry as definitive; the current question is about how to inspect a company's publicly reported ownership.

Certified Fraud Examiner - Investigation (CFE - Investigation) Practice Tests