ACFE CFE - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes (Certified Fraud Examiner - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes) Practice Test 96

Question 950

The case file describes the following: A retailer includes goods owned by suppliers and nonexistent units in its closing inventory figures. Which classification best explains the events?

  1. Inflated year-end inventory
  2. Fictitious sales entries
  3. Omitted related-party disclosure
  4. Unrecorded accrued liabilities

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Inflated year-end inventory fits the facts because overstated ending inventory usually understates cost of goods sold and inflates earnings; the distinguishing observation is that warehouse counts and ownership terms disagree with inventory listings. To test this interpretation, a reviewer should perform independent counts and test ownership and valuation of selected stock.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Fictitious sales entries would involve a different sequence from Inflated year-end inventory: recording invented transactions inflates revenue and assets without an underlying exchange. Unlike the rejected Fictitious sales entries label, the evidence concerns Inflated year-end inventory, since warehouse counts and ownership terms disagree with inventory listings; reviewers should perform independent counts and test ownership and valuation of selected stock.

C:

Omitted related-party disclosure would involve a different sequence from Inflated year-end inventory: even when amounts are recorded, withholding material relationship information can mislead statement users. Unlike the rejected Omitted related-party disclosure label, the evidence concerns Inflated year-end inventory, since warehouse counts and ownership terms disagree with inventory listings; reviewers should perform independent counts and test ownership and valuation of selected stock.

D:

Unrecorded accrued liabilities would involve a different sequence from Inflated year-end inventory: omitting obligations understates liabilities and costs rather than creating new cash resources. Unlike the rejected Unrecorded accrued liabilities label, the evidence concerns Inflated year-end inventory, since warehouse counts and ownership terms disagree with inventory listings; reviewers should perform independent counts and test ownership and valuation of selected stock.

Question 951

The review team observes the following: The charity's controllers and project decision makers overlap. It seeks one targeted detection step and one preventive measure that address the same underlying vulnerability. Which pairing is best?

  1. Diagnostic: Trace donation beneficiaries and governance to tender decisions and communications; safeguard: Apply third-party diligence to charitable contributions connected to public or procurement officials.
  2. Diagnostic: Compare hiring decisions, supplier influence and communications about procurement scoring; safeguard: Set hospitality limits and require advance independent approval for high-risk recipients.
  3. Diagnostic: Trace donation beneficiaries and governance to tender decisions and communications; safeguard: Treat employment opportunities as potential benefits subject to conflict review.
  4. Diagnostic: Review contracts, service evidence and beneficial recipients of advisory fees; safeguard: Apply third-party diligence to charitable contributions connected to public or procurement officials.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The test addresses Inflated charitable donation conduit by targeting this observation: The charity's controllers and project decision makers overlap. The accompanying safeguard—apply third-party diligence to charitable contributions connected to public or procurement officials—counters the same opportunity, so both checking and prevention concern one cause.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The evidence test relates to Improper job-for-favor arrangement, whereas the proposed safeguard protects against Lavish hospitality influence; neither directly resolves Inflated charitable donation conduit. Unlike the Improper job-for-favor arrangement test and Lavish hospitality influence safeguard, the investigation of Inflated charitable donation conduit requires reviewers to trace donation beneficiaries and governance to tender decisions and communications, followed by assessment of the matching control point.

C:

The diagnostic correctly examines Inflated charitable donation conduit by having reviewers trace donation beneficiaries and governance to tender decisions and communications, but the safeguard is for Improper job-for-favor arrangement. That prevention step responds to a different mechanism: Noncash personal advantages can function as bribes when tied to official discretion.

D:

The proposed safeguard is relevant to Inflated charitable donation conduit, but the diagnostic tests Sham consulting bribe rather than the identified anomaly. That test is aimed at records involving invoices for advice lack outputs and coincide with favorable official actions; the specified case instead calls for reviewers to trace donation beneficiaries and governance to tender decisions and communications.

Question 952

The team is assessing a potential trustee and receiver accountability discrepancy. Initial observation: Asset disposals require documented authority and accounting to the court or creditors. Which verification step is most informative?

  1. Compare the proposed plan with liquidity forecasts and creditor treatment.
  2. Compare disclosed assets with bank transfers, ownership and foreign records.
  3. Review appointment orders, estate ledgers and independent disposal evidence.
  4. Assess the payment against applicable preference periods, defenses and creditor classes.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

For the Trustee and receiver accountability concern, the procedure tests source evidence behind this observation: Asset disposals require documented authority and accounting to the court or creditors. This matters because a trustee or receiver acts within a defined legal appointment to administer assets, not as an unrestricted owner; independent corroboration is necessary before accepting any conclusion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This comparison primarily addresses Liquidation versus reorganization, in which reorganization aims to preserve or restructure the enterprise; liquidation ordinarily realizes assets for distribution; because the present question instead concerns Trustee and receiver accountability, reviewers should review appointment orders, estate ledgers and independent disposal evidence rather than apply a check designed for Liquidation versus reorganization.

B:

This comparison primarily addresses Concealed offshore insolvency asset, in which concealment deprives the estate and creditors of property that should be disclosed; because the present question instead concerns Trustee and receiver accountability, reviewers should review appointment orders, estate ledgers and independent disposal evidence rather than apply a check designed for Concealed offshore insolvency asset.

D:

This comparison primarily addresses Preferential creditor payment review, in which preference rules can permit recovery of certain pre-filing payments without proving a fictitious invoice or ordinary theft; because the present question instead concerns Trustee and receiver accountability, reviewers should review appointment orders, estate ledgers and independent disposal evidence rather than apply a check designed for Preferential creditor payment review.

Question 953

A process owner is assessing safeguards for manipulated return-to-gift-card. The mechanism is: A fabricated return transfers store value instead of extracting physical currency. Which control addresses it most directly?

  1. Disallow unsupported cash paid-outs and require separate approval.
  2. Restrict refund destinations and monitor repeated beneficiary cards.
  3. Restrict post-sale void rights and review exception logs with video where lawful.
  4. Require tiered markdown approvals and independent discount-exception review.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The control directly addresses the failure point in Manipulated return-to-gift-card, since a fabricated return transfers store value instead of extracting physical currency. A subsequent independent review could join refund transaction logs with stored-value account activation and use records to identify exceptions that bypassed the safeguard.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Unauthorized register cash payout rather than Manipulated return-to-gift-card, because the register balance is reduced through a purported business disbursement rather than a sale. Unlike the control for Unauthorized register cash payout, the more direct design for Manipulated return-to-gift-card is to restrict refund destinations and monitor repeated beneficiary cards; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

C:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Fraudulent sale void rather than Manipulated return-to-gift-card, because voiding erases or reverses a legitimate recorded sale while the customer payment was retained. Unlike the control for Fraudulent sale void, the more direct design for Manipulated return-to-gift-card is to restrict refund destinations and monitor repeated beneficiary cards; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

D:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Collusive price markdown rather than Manipulated return-to-gift-card, because sale-price manipulation improperly transfers value to an accomplice through undercharging. Unlike the control for Collusive price markdown, the more direct design for Manipulated return-to-gift-card is to restrict refund destinations and monitor repeated beneficiary cards; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

Question 954

The case file describes the following: A restaurateur maintains one sales ledger for management and reports a smaller cash-sales total to the tax authority. Which classification best explains the events?

  1. Lawful tax planning distinction
  2. False consumption-tax input credit
  3. Unreported cash taxable income
  4. Fabricated deductible business cost

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Unreported cash taxable income fits the facts because knowingly concealing taxable receipts can constitute tax evasion rather than lawful tax planning; the distinguishing observation is that payment processor and inventory records indicate sales above the tax returns. To test this interpretation, a reviewer should reconcile independent sales evidence with filed taxable income.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Lawful tax planning distinction would involve a different sequence from Unreported cash taxable income: tax avoidance or planning can lawfully reduce tax; evasion involves unlawful deception or concealment. Unlike the rejected Lawful tax planning distinction label, the evidence concerns Unreported cash taxable income, since payment processor and inventory records indicate sales above the tax returns; reviewers should reconcile independent sales evidence with filed taxable income.

B:

False consumption-tax input credit would involve a different sequence from Unreported cash taxable income: false input credits reduce remitted VAT or generate improper refunds. Unlike the rejected False consumption-tax input credit label, the evidence concerns Unreported cash taxable income, since payment processor and inventory records indicate sales above the tax returns; reviewers should reconcile independent sales evidence with filed taxable income.

D:

Fabricated deductible business cost would involve a different sequence from Unreported cash taxable income: a fictitious expense reduces reported taxable income without a genuine economic cost. Unlike the rejected Fabricated deductible business cost label, the evidence concerns Unreported cash taxable income, since payment processor and inventory records indicate sales above the tax returns; reviewers should reconcile independent sales evidence with filed taxable income.

Question 955

The case file describes the following: A multinational subsidiary must prepare financial statements under the reporting rules required by its jurisdiction and parent consolidation policy. Which classification best explains the events?

  1. Accounting-framework selection
  2. Deferred customer revenue
  3. Gross-profit calculation
  4. Accrued service revenue

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Accounting-framework selection fits the facts because iFRS and national GAAP are accounting frameworks; their use depends on reporting requirements, not the invoice currency; the distinguishing observation is that the same transaction receives conflicting treatment because preparers use incompatible rulebooks. To test this interpretation, a reviewer should review the reporting basis in the financial statement notes and entity-level accounting policies.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Deferred customer revenue would involve a different sequence from Accounting-framework selection: prepayment does not by itself make the entire receipt current-period income; the unperformed portion represents an obligation. Unlike the rejected Deferred customer revenue label, the evidence concerns Accounting-framework selection, since the same transaction receives conflicting treatment because preparers use incompatible rulebooks; reviewers should review the reporting basis in the financial statement notes and entity-level accounting policies.

C:

Gross-profit calculation would involve a different sequence from Accounting-framework selection: gross profit isolates direct goods margin rather than the final earnings after all operating and other costs. Unlike the rejected Gross-profit calculation label, the evidence concerns Accounting-framework selection, since the same transaction receives conflicting treatment because preparers use incompatible rulebooks; reviewers should review the reporting basis in the financial statement notes and entity-level accounting policies.

D:

Accrued service revenue would involve a different sequence from Accounting-framework selection: under accrual accounting, revenue relates to the period when the service was performed, not simply the invoice or cash date. Unlike the rejected Accrued service revenue label, the evidence concerns Accounting-framework selection, since the same transaction receives conflicting treatment because preparers use incompatible rulebooks; reviewers should review the reporting basis in the financial statement notes and entity-level accounting policies.

Question 956

The monitoring team needs an observable indicator of personal purchases billed as business. Which signal aligns most closely with the risk?

  1. Similar amounts, dates and vendors appear under multiple invoice references.
  2. Delivery addresses and item uses do not match legitimate organizational needs.
  3. Vendor registration details overlap with employee contact and payment information.
  4. Purchase prices exceed direct market quotes while a hidden related party sits in the chain.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

This observation is a pertinent indicator of Personal purchases billed as business because the organization pays a real supplier for goods acquired for private use. The practical corroborating procedure is to compare invoices, delivery locations and asset registers with authorized requisitions; the indicator by itself does not establish intent or error.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed observation fits Duplicate vendor-invoice payment, where the scheme exploits duplicate settlement of one legitimate obligation, rather than the particular mechanism in Personal purchases billed as business. Unlike the clue for Duplicate vendor-invoice payment, the more directly related indicator for Personal purchases billed as business is this: Delivery addresses and item uses do not match legitimate organizational needs.

C:

The proposed observation fits Shell-company invoice billing, where a nonoperating entity receives organizational money against false billing support, rather than the particular mechanism in Personal purchases billed as business. Unlike the clue for Shell-company invoice billing, the more directly related indicator for Personal purchases billed as business is this: Delivery addresses and item uses do not match legitimate organizational needs.

D:

The proposed observation fits Pass-through purchasing scheme, where the transaction may deliver real goods yet divert value through an unnecessary marked-up middleman, rather than the particular mechanism in Personal purchases billed as business. Unlike the clue for Pass-through purchasing scheme, the more directly related indicator for Personal purchases billed as business is this: Delivery addresses and item uses do not match legitimate organizational needs.

Question 957

A reviewer wants to distinguish false consumption-tax input credit from adjacent risk patterns. Which observation is the most diagnostic indicator?

  1. Claimed deductions lack actual payments or received services.
  2. Input-tax claims do not match validated purchases or supplier filings.
  3. Payment processor and inventory records indicate sales above the tax returns.
  4. Duplicate tax identities appear with inconsistent devices and refund recipients.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

This observation is a pertinent indicator of False consumption-tax input credit because false input credits reduce remitted VAT or generate improper refunds. The practical corroborating procedure is to cross-match purchase invoices and tax registrations with supplier records; the indicator by itself does not establish intent or error.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed observation fits Fabricated deductible business cost, where a fictitious expense reduces reported taxable income without a genuine economic cost, rather than the particular mechanism in False consumption-tax input credit. Unlike the clue for Fabricated deductible business cost, the more directly related indicator for False consumption-tax input credit is this: Input-tax claims do not match validated purchases or supplier filings.

C:

The proposed observation fits Unreported cash taxable income, where knowingly concealing taxable receipts can constitute tax evasion rather than lawful tax planning, rather than the particular mechanism in False consumption-tax input credit. Unlike the clue for Unreported cash taxable income, the more directly related indicator for False consumption-tax input credit is this: Input-tax claims do not match validated purchases or supplier filings.

D:

The proposed observation fits Stolen-identity tax return, where refund fraud uses another person's tax identity rather than understating the criminal's own income, rather than the particular mechanism in False consumption-tax input credit. Unlike the clue for Stolen-identity tax return, the more directly related indicator for False consumption-tax input credit is this: Input-tax claims do not match validated purchases or supplier filings.

Question 958

An examination of manipulated return-to-gift-card begins with this observation: Refunded card identifiers recur across unrelated customer transactions. Which follow-up procedure gives the most direct evidence?

  1. Reconcile register paid-outs to approved source documents and purchases.
  2. Analyze override rates by operator, customer, item and shift.
  3. Join refund transaction logs with stored-value account activation and use records.
  4. Inspect paid check images, signing authority and voucher support.
  5. Compare cleared check endorsements with vendor confirmations and depositary data.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

For the Manipulated return-to-gift-card concern, the procedure tests source evidence behind this observation: Refunded card identifiers recur across unrelated customer transactions. This matters because a fabricated return transfers store value instead of extracting physical currency; independent corroboration is necessary before accepting any conclusion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This comparison primarily addresses Unauthorized register cash payout, in which the register balance is reduced through a purported business disbursement rather than a sale; because the present question instead concerns Manipulated return-to-gift-card, reviewers should join refund transaction logs with stored-value account activation and use records rather than apply a check designed for Unauthorized register cash payout.

B:

This comparison primarily addresses Collusive price markdown, in which sale-price manipulation improperly transfers value to an accomplice through undercharging; because the present question instead concerns Manipulated return-to-gift-card, reviewers should join refund transaction logs with stored-value account activation and use records rather than apply a check designed for Collusive price markdown.

D:

This comparison primarily addresses Forged check-maker signature, in which the perpetrator creates a payment instrument without the genuine drawer authorization; because the present question instead concerns Manipulated return-to-gift-card, reviewers should join refund transaction logs with stored-value account activation and use records rather than apply a check designed for Forged check-maker signature.

E:

This comparison primarily addresses Forged check endorsement, in which the authorized check is diverted at the endorsement stage, not created by a false invoice; because the present question instead concerns Manipulated return-to-gift-card, reviewers should join refund transaction logs with stored-value account activation and use records rather than apply a check designed for Forged check endorsement.

Question 959

An examination of invented procurement need begins with this observation: Demand forecasts and asset utilization records contradict the justification. Which follow-up procedure gives the most direct evidence?

  1. Compare original scope, approved modifications and actual field measurements.
  2. Match delivered batch identifiers and tests to the contract specification.
  3. Compare proposed purchase needs with inventory, utilization and operational plans.
  4. Aggregate same-purpose requisitions and compare total value with policy thresholds.
  5. Reconcile submitted costs to job-level records and contractual allowability.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

For the Invented procurement need concern, the procedure tests source evidence behind this observation: Demand forecasts and asset utilization records contradict the justification. This matters because procurement fraud can begin before bids when a false organizational need is created; independent corroboration is necessary before accepting any conclusion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This comparison primarily addresses Post-award change-order inflation, in which post-award modifications can recoup an artificially low bid or extract excessive payments; because the present question instead concerns Invented procurement need, reviewers should compare proposed purchase needs with inventory, utilization and operational plans rather than apply a check designed for Post-award change-order inflation.

B:

This comparison primarily addresses Nonconforming material substitution, in which the vendor obtains full payment while supplying inferior goods; because the present question instead concerns Invented procurement need, reviewers should compare proposed purchase needs with inventory, utilization and operational plans rather than apply a check designed for Nonconforming material substitution.

D:

This comparison primarily addresses Split purchases to evade tender threshold, in which fragmentation bypasses a competitive procedure that would apply to the full requirement; because the present question instead concerns Invented procurement need, reviewers should compare proposed purchase needs with inventory, utilization and operational plans rather than apply a check designed for Split purchases to evade tender threshold.

E:

This comparison primarily addresses Contractor cost mischarging, in which miscoding expenses shifts ineligible work costs onto the purchasing agency; because the present question instead concerns Invented procurement need, reviewers should compare proposed purchase needs with inventory, utilization and operational plans rather than apply a check designed for Contractor cost mischarging.

Question 960

A process owner is assessing safeguards for phantom consulting fees. The mechanism is: Fabricated intangible services can be billed without the physical receiving evidence used for goods. Which control addresses it most directly?

  1. Enforce purchase-order approval tied to documented business purpose and receiving.
  2. Apply authorization thresholds to combined requirements, not artificial invoice fragments.
  3. Tie service payments to verifiable milestones and independent acceptance.
  4. Prevent repeated invoice processing using duplicate controls and independent exception review.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The control directly addresses the failure point in Phantom consulting fees, since fabricated intangible services can be billed without the physical receiving evidence used for goods. A subsequent independent review could corroborate contract deliverables with employees and independent project evidence to identify exceptions that bypassed the safeguard.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Personal purchases billed as business rather than Phantom consulting fees, because the organization pays a real supplier for goods acquired for private use. Unlike the control for Personal purchases billed as business, the more direct design for Phantom consulting fees is to tie service payments to verifiable milestones and independent acceptance; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

B:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Split procurement invoices rather than Phantom consulting fees, because splitting evades approval controls that would apply to the whole purchase. Unlike the control for Split procurement invoices, the more direct design for Phantom consulting fees is to tie service payments to verifiable milestones and independent acceptance; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

D:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Duplicate vendor-invoice payment rather than Phantom consulting fees, because the scheme exploits duplicate settlement of one legitimate obligation. Unlike the control for Duplicate vendor-invoice payment, the more direct design for Phantom consulting fees is to tie service payments to verifiable milestones and independent acceptance; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

Certified Fraud Examiner - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes (CFE - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes) Practice Tests