ACFE CFE - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes (Certified Fraud Examiner - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes) Practice Test 75

Question 740

Reviewers flag a possible unsuitable securities recommendation issue. Their preliminary finding is: Recommendation rationale conflicts with the client's recorded objectives and liquidity requirements. Which test would best confirm or refute the concern?

  1. Compare offering statements with board records, counsel assessments and known liabilities.
  2. Compare recommended product risk with the suitability and client-knowledge records.
  3. Trace public environmental claims to primary data, methodology and validation evidence.
  4. Analyze account turnover, costs, broker control and trading justifications.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

For the Unsuitable securities recommendation concern, the procedure tests source evidence behind this observation: Recommendation rationale conflicts with the client's recorded objectives and liquidity requirements. This matters because a sale can be improper because the recommendation does not match the customer's circumstances, not because the product itself is inherently unlawful; independent corroboration is necessary before accepting any conclusion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This comparison primarily addresses Misleading offering prospectus, in which omission of decision-useful facts can mislead investors even where some published numbers are accurate; because the present question instead concerns Unsuitable securities recommendation, reviewers should compare recommended product risk with the suitability and client-knowledge records rather than apply a check designed for Misleading offering prospectus.

C:

This comparison primarily addresses False sustainability disclosures, in which nonfinancial representations can deceive securities investors when inaccurate or unsupported; because the present question instead concerns Unsuitable securities recommendation, reviewers should compare recommended product risk with the suitability and client-knowledge records rather than apply a check designed for False sustainability disclosures.

D:

This comparison primarily addresses Excessive-account churning, in which excessive trading for broker compensation can constitute churning when control and other relevant elements are present; because the present question instead concerns Unsuitable securities recommendation, reviewers should compare recommended product risk with the suitability and client-knowledge records rather than apply a check designed for Excessive-account churning.

Question 741

An exception review involving medical identity misuse identifies the following: Claims include care inconsistent with the member's verified history and identification. Which evidence comparison most directly evaluates the facts?

  1. Confirm patient identity and compare provider records with genuine insured-person statements.
  2. Review medical records and criteria supporting prescribed devices.
  3. Match encounter claims to scheduling, patient attestations and clinical documentation.
  4. Compare referral patterns with payment ties and clinical appropriateness.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

For the Medical identity misuse concern, the procedure tests source evidence behind this observation: Claims include care inconsistent with the member's verified history and identification. This matters because an unauthorized patient exploits a real person's insurance entitlement; independent corroboration is necessary before accepting any conclusion.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This comparison primarily addresses False medical necessity certification, in which claims fraud can arise from false eligibility or necessity rather than nonexistent delivery; because the present question instead concerns Medical identity misuse, reviewers should confirm patient identity and compare provider records with genuine insured-person statements rather than apply a check designed for False medical necessity certification.

C:

This comparison primarily addresses Phantom patient encounters, in which billing nonexistent visits extracts payment for services not rendered; because the present question instead concerns Medical identity misuse, reviewers should confirm patient identity and compare provider records with genuine insured-person statements rather than apply a check designed for Phantom patient encounters.

D:

This comparison primarily addresses Prescribing referral kickback, in which financial inducements can corrupt medical decisions even when treatment is actually delivered; because the present question instead concerns Medical identity misuse, reviewers should confirm patient identity and compare provider records with genuine insured-person statements rather than apply a check designed for Prescribing referral kickback.

Question 742

Control designers are focusing on the mechanism behind bribe to overlook inspections: A corrupt payment changes official judgment to allow nonconforming work. Which measure best limits that opportunity?

  1. Screen intermediaries and beneficial owners for decision-maker connections.
  2. Enforce independent sourcing approvals and disclose vendor-benefit relationships.
  3. Rotate inspectors and independently verify high-risk acceptance decisions.
  4. Require timely conflict disclosure and recusal from related decisions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The control directly addresses the failure point in Bribe to overlook inspections, since a corrupt payment changes official judgment to allow nonconforming work. A subsequent independent review could compare certification dates with quality results and inspector-vendor relationships to identify exceptions that bypassed the safeguard.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Vendor-funded political favor rather than Bribe to overlook inspections, because indirect benefits can constitute corruption when used to induce improper contract decisions. Unlike the control for Vendor-funded political favor, the more direct design for Bribe to overlook inspections is to rotate inspectors and independently verify high-risk acceptance decisions; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

B:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Supplier kickback for selection rather than Bribe to overlook inspections, because a kickback rewards an official for steering organizational business rather than for legitimate services. Unlike the control for Supplier kickback for selection, the more direct design for Bribe to overlook inspections is to rotate inspectors and independently verify high-risk acceptance decisions; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

D:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Undisclosed supplier ownership rather than Bribe to overlook inspections, because a personal interest compromises objectivity even before a direct bribe is proven. Unlike the control for Undisclosed supplier ownership, the more direct design for Bribe to overlook inspections is to rotate inspectors and independently verify high-risk acceptance decisions; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

Question 743

An exception review involving false government grant deliverables identifies the following: Attendance records and participant confirmations contradict reported milestones. Which evidence comparison most directly evaluates the facts?

  1. Verify existence and pre-disaster activity using independent authoritative records.
  2. Confirm milestone completion with independent beneficiaries and time records.
  3. Reconcile employee time allocation and invoice support across grants.
  4. Compare application scoring and decision records with declared program requirements.
  5. Cross-match beneficiary status with authorized registries and payment destinations.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

For the False government grant deliverables concern, the procedure tests source evidence behind this observation: Attendance records and participant confirmations contradict reported milestones. This matters because a grant recipient obtains public funds by falsely certifying eligible performance; independent corroboration is necessary before accepting any conclusion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This comparison primarily addresses Fictitious disaster relief business, in which crisis support can be abused through fictitious claimants and fabricated losses; because the present question instead concerns False government grant deliverables, reviewers should confirm milestone completion with independent beneficiaries and time records rather than apply a check designed for Fictitious disaster relief business.

C:

This comparison primarily addresses Double-charged public grant costs, in which a real cost becomes fraudulent when recovered more than once from restricted funding sources; because the present question instead concerns False government grant deliverables, reviewers should confirm milestone completion with independent beneficiaries and time records rather than apply a check designed for Double-charged public grant costs.

D:

This comparison primarily addresses Politically directed benefit awards, in which misuse of discretionary public funds can favor connected parties over eligible beneficiaries; because the present question instead concerns False government grant deliverables, reviewers should confirm milestone completion with independent beneficiaries and time records rather than apply a check designed for Politically directed benefit awards.

E:

This comparison primarily addresses Ghost public-assistance beneficiaries, in which public funds continue flowing to people who should not receive benefits; because the present question instead concerns False government grant deliverables, reviewers should confirm milestone completion with independent beneficiaries and time records rather than apply a check designed for Ghost public-assistance beneficiaries.

Question 744

The team is assessing a potential unrecorded admission-fee skimming discrepancy. Initial observation: Gate headcounts exceed issued ticket counts and corresponding deposits. Which verification step is most informative?

  1. Compare independent unit movement and customer receipts with posted till transactions.
  2. Reconcile turnstile counts and ticket ranges to till reports and banked cash.
  3. Trace a sample of individual customer remittances through deposit and account-credit dates.
  4. Confirm customer remittances against cash receipts and subsequent write-offs.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

For the Unrecorded admission-fee skimming concern, the procedure tests source evidence behind this observation: Gate headcounts exceed issued ticket counts and corresponding deposits. This matters because off-book ticket proceeds can disappear without creating a deposit shortage in the books; independent corroboration is necessary before accepting any conclusion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This comparison primarily addresses Off-register retail skimming, in which skimming removes receipts before they enter the organization's accounting records; because the present question instead concerns Unrecorded admission-fee skimming, reviewers should reconcile turnstile counts and ticket ranges to till reports and banked cash rather than apply a check designed for Off-register retail skimming.

C:

This comparison primarily addresses Receivable lapping, in which lapping rolls forward a shortage by applying one customer's payment to another account; because the present question instead concerns Unrecorded admission-fee skimming, reviewers should reconcile turnstile counts and ticket ranges to till reports and banked cash rather than apply a check designed for Receivable lapping.

D:

This comparison primarily addresses Accounts-receivable skimming, in which the employee captures incoming funds and conceals the missing credit to the customer's balance; because the present question instead concerns Unrecorded admission-fee skimming, reviewers should reconcile turnstile counts and ticket ranges to till reports and banked cash rather than apply a check designed for Accounts-receivable skimming.

Question 745

Two separate review files raise different issues. File A: An insurance agent accepts premiums from clients but does not remit them to the carrier. File B: An employee receives disability benefits while secretly working elsewhere despite reporting complete incapacity. Which pairing accurately classifies both files?

  1. File A: Concealed preexisting condition; File B: Workers compensation malingering.
  2. File A: Insurance premium diversion; File B: Workers compensation malingering.
  3. File A: Workers compensation malingering; File B: Insurance premium diversion.
  4. File A: Insurance premium diversion; File B: Intentional property fire claim.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

File A is Insurance premium diversion because the intermediary misappropriates premium cash without necessarily creating a false claim, while File B is Workers compensation malingering because misstated disability status can sustain benefits inconsistent with actual capacity. The evidence chains differ: for File A, reviewers should confirm payments with customers and compare carrier remittance and policy status; for File B, they should compare benefit certifications with lawful employment and activity records.

Incorrect Answers

A:

File A is misidentified as Concealed preexisting condition instead of Insurance premium diversion. With the proposed pairing Concealed preexisting condition / Workers compensation malingering, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that policyholders have receipts while insurer records show lapse or nonpayment, whereas File B shows that claimed work restrictions conflict with verified employment or functional evidence. For these Insurance premium diversion and Workers compensation malingering files, choosing the pair Concealed preexisting condition / Workers compensation malingering would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

C:

File A is misidentified as Workers compensation malingering instead of Insurance premium diversion; File B is misidentified as Insurance premium diversion instead of Workers compensation malingering. With the proposed pairing Workers compensation malingering / Insurance premium diversion, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that policyholders have receipts while insurer records show lapse or nonpayment, whereas File B shows that claimed work restrictions conflict with verified employment or functional evidence. For these Insurance premium diversion and Workers compensation malingering files, choosing the pair Workers compensation malingering / Insurance premium diversion would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

D:

File B is misidentified as Intentional property fire claim instead of Workers compensation malingering. With the proposed pairing Insurance premium diversion / Intentional property fire claim, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that policyholders have receipts while insurer records show lapse or nonpayment, whereas File B shows that claimed work restrictions conflict with verified employment or functional evidence. For these Insurance premium diversion and Workers compensation malingering files, choosing the pair Insurance premium diversion / Intentional property fire claim would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

Question 746

The review team observes the following: External sustainability claims disagree with underlying meter and assurance records. It seeks one targeted detection step and one preventive measure that address the same underlying vulnerability. Which pairing is best?

  1. Diagnostic: Join employee transaction records with confidential order timestamps and market prices; safeguard: Monitor commission-driven activity and require supervisory review of high-turnover accounts.
  2. Diagnostic: Trace public environmental claims to primary data, methodology and validation evidence; safeguard: Enforce personal-trading controls and surveillance around sensitive customer orders.
  3. Diagnostic: Trace public environmental claims to primary data, methodology and validation evidence; safeguard: Apply documented ESG reporting controls and independent verification of material claims.
  4. Diagnostic: Compare business activities and compensation against applicable regulator registrations; safeguard: Apply documented ESG reporting controls and independent verification of material claims.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The test addresses False sustainability disclosures by targeting this observation: External sustainability claims disagree with underlying meter and assurance records. The accompanying safeguard—apply documented ESG reporting controls and independent verification of material claims—counters the same opportunity, so both checking and prevention concern one cause.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The evidence test relates to Broker front-running client order, whereas the proposed safeguard protects against Excessive-account churning; neither directly resolves False sustainability disclosures. Unlike the Broker front-running client order test and Excessive-account churning safeguard, the investigation of False sustainability disclosures requires reviewers to trace public environmental claims to primary data, methodology and validation evidence, followed by assessment of the matching control point.

B:

The diagnostic correctly examines False sustainability disclosures by having reviewers trace public environmental claims to primary data, methodology and validation evidence, but the safeguard is for Broker front-running client order. That prevention step responds to a different mechanism: Misusing confidential customer-order knowledge for personal gain creates market-abuse and conflict risks.

D:

The proposed safeguard is relevant to False sustainability disclosures, but the diagnostic tests Unregistered brokerage solicitation rather than the identified anomaly. That test is aimed at records involving commission records show ongoing securities placement activity without appropriate registration evidence; the specified case instead calls for reviewers to trace public environmental claims to primary data, methodology and validation evidence.

Question 747

The case file describes the following: A manufacturer pays cash to acquire production machinery rather than consumable supplies. Which classification best explains the events?

  1. Investing cash-flow classification
  2. Equity reconciliation
  3. Operating cash-flow classification
  4. Financing cash-flow classification

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Investing cash-flow classification fits the facts because buying plant equipment is generally an investing cash outflow, not a routine operating payment; the distinguishing observation is that the outflow bought a long-lived productive asset. To test this interpretation, a reviewer should trace fixed-asset additions and bank settlements to the investing section of the cash-flow statement.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Equity reconciliation would involve a different sequence from Investing cash-flow classification: equity is the residual interest in assets after deducting liabilities, not a bank balance or revenue figure. Unlike the rejected Equity reconciliation label, the evidence concerns Investing cash-flow classification, since the outflow bought a long-lived productive asset; reviewers should trace fixed-asset additions and bank settlements to the investing section of the cash-flow statement.

C:

Operating cash-flow classification would involve a different sequence from Investing cash-flow classification: operating cash flows concern core activities and need not equal accrual net income. Unlike the rejected Operating cash-flow classification label, the evidence concerns Investing cash-flow classification, since the outflow bought a long-lived productive asset; reviewers should trace fixed-asset additions and bank settlements to the investing section of the cash-flow statement.

D:

Financing cash-flow classification would involve a different sequence from Investing cash-flow classification: financing activities describe changes in funding from lenders and owners; classifications of interest can vary by accounting framework. Unlike the rejected Financing cash-flow classification label, the evidence concerns Investing cash-flow classification, since the outflow bought a long-lived productive asset; reviewers should trace fixed-asset additions and bank settlements to the investing section of the cash-flow statement.

Question 748

The case file describes the following: A property owner deliberately starts a fire and later presents it as accidental damage. Which classification best explains the events?

  1. Intentional property fire claim
  2. Inflated auto repair estimate
  3. Insurance premium diversion
  4. Workers compensation malingering

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Intentional property fire claim fits the facts because deliberate creation of a loss may defeat coverage and constitutes a different risk from accidental damage; the distinguishing observation is that fire origin evidence and financial motives disagree with the reported timeline. To test this interpretation, a reviewer should coordinate lawful cause-and-origin findings with coverage and ownership evidence.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inflated auto repair estimate would involve a different sequence from Intentional property fire claim: a real covered loss is enlarged through fictitious repair costs. Unlike the rejected Inflated auto repair estimate label, the evidence concerns Intentional property fire claim, since fire origin evidence and financial motives disagree with the reported timeline; reviewers should coordinate lawful cause-and-origin findings with coverage and ownership evidence.

C:

Insurance premium diversion would involve a different sequence from Intentional property fire claim: the intermediary misappropriates premium cash without necessarily creating a false claim. Unlike the rejected Insurance premium diversion label, the evidence concerns Intentional property fire claim, since fire origin evidence and financial motives disagree with the reported timeline; reviewers should coordinate lawful cause-and-origin findings with coverage and ownership evidence.

D:

Workers compensation malingering would involve a different sequence from Intentional property fire claim: misstated disability status can sustain benefits inconsistent with actual capacity. Unlike the rejected Workers compensation malingering label, the evidence concerns Intentional property fire claim, since fire origin evidence and financial motives disagree with the reported timeline; reviewers should coordinate lawful cause-and-origin findings with coverage and ownership evidence.

Question 749

An analyst is selecting warning signs for concealed offshore insolvency asset. Which recorded pattern should receive focused attention?

  1. Sale value and related-party timing are inconsistent with an arm's-length transfer.
  2. The payment timing, relationship and insolvency condition raise preference concerns.
  3. Financial records show transfers to an undisclosed account shortly before filing.
  4. Asset disposals require documented authority and accounting to the court or creditors.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

This observation is a pertinent indicator of Concealed offshore insolvency asset because concealment deprives the estate and creditors of property that should be disclosed. The practical corroborating procedure is to compare disclosed assets with bank transfers, ownership and foreign records; the indicator by itself does not establish intent or error.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed observation fits Pre-filing fraudulent asset transfer, where transfers intended to put assets beyond creditors may be challengeable under applicable insolvency law, rather than the particular mechanism in Concealed offshore insolvency asset. Unlike the clue for Pre-filing fraudulent asset transfer, the more directly related indicator for Concealed offshore insolvency asset is this: Financial records show transfers to an undisclosed account shortly before filing.

B:

The proposed observation fits Preferential creditor payment review, where preference rules can permit recovery of certain pre-filing payments without proving a fictitious invoice or ordinary theft, rather than the particular mechanism in Concealed offshore insolvency asset. Unlike the clue for Preferential creditor payment review, the more directly related indicator for Concealed offshore insolvency asset is this: Financial records show transfers to an undisclosed account shortly before filing.

D:

The proposed observation fits Trustee and receiver accountability, where a trustee or receiver acts within a defined legal appointment to administer assets, not as an unrestricted owner, rather than the particular mechanism in Concealed offshore insolvency asset. Unlike the clue for Trustee and receiver accountability, the more directly related indicator for Concealed offshore insolvency asset is this: Financial records show transfers to an undisclosed account shortly before filing.

Question 750

A process owner is assessing safeguards for vendor-mailbox business email compromise. The mechanism is: BEC uses trusted business communications to redirect funds without necessarily altering the invoice amount. Which control addresses it most directly?

  1. Require transaction approvals that cannot be waived by voice alone.
  2. Use phishing-resistant access controls and callback verification for payment changes.
  3. Restrict remote access by role, source and strong authentication.
  4. Train staff to verify links and protect approved workplace posters against substitution.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The control directly addresses the failure point in Vendor-mailbox business email compromise, since bEC uses trusted business communications to redirect funds without necessarily altering the invoice amount. A subsequent independent review could review mailbox access events and independently verify beneficiary instructions to identify exceptions that bypassed the safeguard.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This safeguard is directed primarily at AI-voice executive impersonation rather than Vendor-mailbox business email compromise, because synthetic voice impersonation can exploit executive authority cues without true authorization. Unlike the control for AI-voice executive impersonation, the more direct design for Vendor-mailbox business email compromise is to use phishing-resistant access controls and callback verification for payment changes; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

C:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Remote desktop credential intrusion rather than Vendor-mailbox business email compromise, because valid-looking remote sessions can conceal misuse of stolen administrator access. Unlike the control for Remote desktop credential intrusion, the more direct design for Vendor-mailbox business email compromise is to use phishing-resistant access controls and callback verification for payment changes; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

D:

This safeguard is directed primarily at QR-code phishing campaign rather than Vendor-mailbox business email compromise, because qR phishing hides a malicious URL within an image instead of a visible hyperlink. Unlike the control for QR-code phishing campaign, the more direct design for Vendor-mailbox business email compromise is to use phishing-resistant access controls and callback verification for payment changes; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

Certified Fraud Examiner - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes (CFE - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes) Practice Tests