ACFE CFE - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes (Certified Fraud Examiner - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes) Practice Test 45

Question 440

The case file describes the following: A database administrator copies an entire confidential research dataset outside an approved processing workflow. Which classification best explains the events?

  1. Supplier-access data theft
  2. Spear-phishing product drawings
  3. Privileged bulk data export
  4. Printed blueprint removal

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Privileged bulk data export fits the facts because excess technical privilege can permit insider misappropriation of valuable information; the distinguishing observation is that privileged queries and large exports lack authorized change tickets. To test this interpretation, a reviewer should join database audit trails with approved work orders and outbound data transfers.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Supplier-access data theft would involve a different sequence from Privileged bulk data export: compromised or misused partner access can become a route for proprietary-data loss. Unlike the rejected Supplier-access data theft label, the evidence concerns Privileged bulk data export, since privileged queries and large exports lack authorized change tickets; reviewers should join database audit trails with approved work orders and outbound data transfers.

B:

Spear-phishing product drawings would involve a different sequence from Privileged bulk data export: deceptive credential collection enables unauthorized access to proprietary engineering data. Unlike the rejected Spear-phishing product drawings label, the evidence concerns Privileged bulk data export, since privileged queries and large exports lack authorized change tickets; reviewers should join database audit trails with approved work orders and outbound data transfers.

D:

Printed blueprint removal would involve a different sequence from Privileged bulk data export: optical capture can remove trade secrets without any network download event. Unlike the rejected Printed blueprint removal label, the evidence concerns Privileged bulk data export, since privileged queries and large exports lack authorized change tickets; reviewers should join database audit trails with approved work orders and outbound data transfers.

Question 441

An exception review involving off-register retail skimming identifies the following: Observed foot traffic and inventory movement exceed recorded sales. Which evidence comparison most directly evaluates the facts?

  1. Match refund authorizations to returned-stock records and original receipt identifiers.
  2. Reconcile turnstile counts and ticket ranges to till reports and banked cash.
  3. Compare independent unit movement and customer receipts with posted till transactions.
  4. Confirm customer remittances against cash receipts and subsequent write-offs.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

For the Off-register retail skimming concern, the procedure tests source evidence behind this observation: Observed foot traffic and inventory movement exceed recorded sales. This matters because skimming removes receipts before they enter the organization's accounting records; independent corroboration is necessary before accepting any conclusion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This comparison primarily addresses Concealment through false refunds, in which a false refund creates an apparently authorized cash outflow, unlike an off-record cash receipt theft; because the present question instead concerns Off-register retail skimming, reviewers should compare independent unit movement and customer receipts with posted till transactions rather than apply a check designed for Concealment through false refunds.

B:

This comparison primarily addresses Unrecorded admission-fee skimming, in which off-book ticket proceeds can disappear without creating a deposit shortage in the books; because the present question instead concerns Off-register retail skimming, reviewers should compare independent unit movement and customer receipts with posted till transactions rather than apply a check designed for Unrecorded admission-fee skimming.

D:

This comparison primarily addresses Accounts-receivable skimming, in which the employee captures incoming funds and conceals the missing credit to the customer's balance; because the present question instead concerns Off-register retail skimming, reviewers should compare independent unit movement and customer receipts with posted till transactions rather than apply a check designed for Accounts-receivable skimming.

Question 442

A process owner is assessing safeguards for preferential creditor payment review. The mechanism is: Preference rules can permit recovery of certain pre-filing payments without proving a fictitious invoice or ordinary theft. Which control addresses it most directly?

  1. Choose an appropriate lawful restructuring process rather than assuming all insolvencies require liquidation.
  2. Segregate custody and oversight of estate assets under the applicable insolvency framework.
  3. Apply consistent creditor-payment governance and seek jurisdiction-specific insolvency advice.
  4. Require complete asset schedules and independent verification under applicable law.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The control directly addresses the failure point in Preferential creditor payment review, since preference rules can permit recovery of certain pre-filing payments without proving a fictitious invoice or ordinary theft. A subsequent independent review could assess the payment against applicable preference periods, defenses and creditor classes to identify exceptions that bypassed the safeguard.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Liquidation versus reorganization rather than Preferential creditor payment review, because reorganization aims to preserve or restructure the enterprise; liquidation ordinarily realizes assets for distribution. Unlike the control for Liquidation versus reorganization, the more direct design for Preferential creditor payment review is to apply consistent creditor-payment governance and seek jurisdiction-specific insolvency advice; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

B:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Trustee and receiver accountability rather than Preferential creditor payment review, because a trustee or receiver acts within a defined legal appointment to administer assets, not as an unrestricted owner. Unlike the control for Trustee and receiver accountability, the more direct design for Preferential creditor payment review is to apply consistent creditor-payment governance and seek jurisdiction-specific insolvency advice; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

D:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Concealed offshore insolvency asset rather than Preferential creditor payment review, because concealment deprives the estate and creditors of property that should be disclosed. Unlike the control for Concealed offshore insolvency asset, the more direct design for Preferential creditor payment review is to apply consistent creditor-payment governance and seek jurisdiction-specific insolvency advice; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

Question 443

The review team observes the following: Commission records show ongoing securities placement activity without appropriate registration evidence. It seeks one targeted detection step and one preventive measure that address the same underlying vulnerability. Which pairing is best?

  1. Diagnostic: Join employee transaction records with confidential order timestamps and market prices; safeguard: Verify regulatory status and permitted functions of intermediaries before engagement.
  2. Diagnostic: Compare business activities and compensation against applicable regulator registrations; safeguard: Verify regulatory status and permitted functions of intermediaries before engagement.
  3. Diagnostic: Compare trading timestamps, information access and public-disclosure chronology; safeguard: Apply documented ESG reporting controls and independent verification of material claims.
  4. Diagnostic: Compare business activities and compensation against applicable regulator registrations; safeguard: Maintain insider-trading restrictions, preclearance and confidentiality controls.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The test addresses Unregistered brokerage solicitation by targeting this observation: Commission records show ongoing securities placement activity without appropriate registration evidence. The accompanying safeguard—verify regulatory status and permitted functions of intermediaries before engagement—counters the same opportunity, so both checking and prevention concern one cause.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed safeguard is relevant to Unregistered brokerage solicitation, but the diagnostic tests Broker front-running client order rather than the identified anomaly. That test is aimed at records involving employee trades consistently precede client orders and benefit from resulting price movements; the specified case instead calls for reviewers to compare business activities and compensation against applicable regulator registrations.

C:

The evidence test relates to Material nonpublic information trading, whereas the proposed safeguard protects against False sustainability disclosures; neither directly resolves Unregistered brokerage solicitation. Unlike the Material nonpublic information trading test and False sustainability disclosures safeguard, the investigation of Unregistered brokerage solicitation requires reviewers to compare business activities and compensation against applicable regulator registrations, followed by assessment of the matching control point.

D:

The diagnostic correctly examines Unregistered brokerage solicitation by having reviewers compare business activities and compensation against applicable regulator registrations, but the safeguard is for Material nonpublic information trading. That prevention step responds to a different mechanism: Trading on material information not publicly available may breach insider-trading rules depending on the jurisdiction and duties involved.

Question 444

Two separate review files raise different issues. File A: An evaluator sends the agency's sealed reserve price to a preferred vendor before bids close. File B: A purchasing officer divides a single planned purchase into several small orders below the open-bid limit. Which pairing accurately classifies both files?

  1. File A: Leaked confidential price estimate; File B: Split purchases to evade tender threshold.
  2. File A: Invented procurement need; File B: Split purchases to evade tender threshold.
  3. File A: Leaked confidential price estimate; File B: Bid suppression agreement.
  4. File A: Split purchases to evade tender threshold; File B: Leaked confidential price estimate.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

File A is Leaked confidential price estimate because insider disclosure removes the information parity necessary for a fair tender, while File B is Split purchases to evade tender threshold because fragmentation bypasses a competitive procedure that would apply to the full requirement. The evidence chains differ: for File A, reviewers should compare restricted-file access and messaging with bid timing; for File B, they should aggregate same-purpose requisitions and compare total value with policy thresholds.

Incorrect Answers

B:

File A is misidentified as Invented procurement need instead of Leaked confidential price estimate. With the proposed pairing Invented procurement need / Split purchases to evade tender threshold, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that the winner's bid narrowly undercuts a nonpublic cost estimate and communications show early access, whereas File B shows that related requisitions for the same need occur within a short period. For these Leaked confidential price estimate and Split purchases to evade tender threshold files, choosing the pair Invented procurement need / Split purchases to evade tender threshold would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

C:

File B is misidentified as Bid suppression agreement instead of Split purchases to evade tender threshold. With the proposed pairing Leaked confidential price estimate / Bid suppression agreement, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that the winner's bid narrowly undercuts a nonpublic cost estimate and communications show early access, whereas File B shows that related requisitions for the same need occur within a short period. For these Leaked confidential price estimate and Split purchases to evade tender threshold files, choosing the pair Leaked confidential price estimate / Bid suppression agreement would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

D:

File A is misidentified as Split purchases to evade tender threshold instead of Leaked confidential price estimate; File B is misidentified as Leaked confidential price estimate instead of Split purchases to evade tender threshold. With the proposed pairing Split purchases to evade tender threshold / Leaked confidential price estimate, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that the winner's bid narrowly undercuts a nonpublic cost estimate and communications show early access, whereas File B shows that related requisitions for the same need occur within a short period. For these Leaked confidential price estimate and Split purchases to evade tender threshold files, choosing the pair Split purchases to evade tender threshold / Leaked confidential price estimate would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

Question 445

Two separate review files raise different issues. File A: A clerk records a fictitious cash refund against a prior real sale and removes the corresponding banknotes. File B: A shop cashier accepts cash for merchandise but never rings the sale into the point-of-sale system. Which pairing accurately classifies both files?

  1. File A: Concealment through false refunds; File B: Off-register retail skimming.
  2. File A: Concealment through false refunds; File B: Cash-sale understatement.
  3. File A: Unrecorded admission-fee skimming; File B: Off-register retail skimming.
  4. File A: Off-register retail skimming; File B: Concealment through false refunds.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

File A is Concealment through false refunds because a false refund creates an apparently authorized cash outflow, unlike an off-record cash receipt theft, while File B is Off-register retail skimming because skimming removes receipts before they enter the organization's accounting records. The evidence chains differ: for File A, reviewers should match refund authorizations to returned-stock records and original receipt identifiers; for File B, they should compare independent unit movement and customer receipts with posted till transactions.

Incorrect Answers

B:

File B is misidentified as Cash-sale understatement instead of Off-register retail skimming. With the proposed pairing Concealment through false refunds / Cash-sale understatement, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that refund rates jump without matching returned merchandise or customer evidence, whereas File B shows that observed foot traffic and inventory movement exceed recorded sales. For these Concealment through false refunds and Off-register retail skimming files, choosing the pair Concealment through false refunds / Cash-sale understatement would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

C:

File A is misidentified as Unrecorded admission-fee skimming instead of Concealment through false refunds. With the proposed pairing Unrecorded admission-fee skimming / Off-register retail skimming, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that refund rates jump without matching returned merchandise or customer evidence, whereas File B shows that observed foot traffic and inventory movement exceed recorded sales. For these Concealment through false refunds and Off-register retail skimming files, choosing the pair Unrecorded admission-fee skimming / Off-register retail skimming would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

D:

File A is misidentified as Off-register retail skimming instead of Concealment through false refunds; File B is misidentified as Concealment through false refunds instead of Off-register retail skimming. With the proposed pairing Off-register retail skimming / Concealment through false refunds, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that refund rates jump without matching returned merchandise or customer evidence, whereas File B shows that observed foot traffic and inventory movement exceed recorded sales. For these Concealment through false refunds and Off-register retail skimming files, choosing the pair Off-register retail skimming / Concealment through false refunds would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

Question 446

Control designers are focusing on the mechanism behind synthetic identity borrowing: A synthetic identity blends genuine and invented attributes rather than simply impersonating one full real identity. Which measure best limits that opportunity?

  1. Verify taxpayer identity and flag anomalous refund destination changes.
  2. Use strong identity verification and out-of-band checks for high-risk credit applications.
  3. Apply risk-based identity proofing and monitor inconsistent identities across applications.
  4. Teach verified-site access and strengthen secure document submission pathways.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The control directly addresses the failure point in Synthetic identity borrowing, since a synthetic identity blends genuine and invented attributes rather than simply impersonating one full real identity. A subsequent independent review could cross-validate identity attributes and account histories using reliable independent records to identify exceptions that bypassed the safeguard.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Identity-based tax refund diversion rather than Synthetic identity borrowing, because the scheme monetizes stolen taxpayer identity through a fraudulent government refund claim. Unlike the control for Identity-based tax refund diversion, the more direct design for Synthetic identity borrowing is to apply risk-based identity proofing and monitor inconsistent identities across applications; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

B:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Stolen-personal-data loan rather than Synthetic identity borrowing, because an impersonator assumes a real victim's identity to obtain an unauthorized loan. Unlike the control for Stolen-personal-data loan, the more direct design for Synthetic identity borrowing is to apply risk-based identity proofing and monitor inconsistent identities across applications; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

D:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Phishing identity-document collection rather than Synthetic identity borrowing, because social engineering harvests data that can later support impersonation or account opening. Unlike the control for Phishing identity-document collection, the more direct design for Synthetic identity borrowing is to apply risk-based identity proofing and monitor inconsistent identities across applications; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

Question 447

An analyst is selecting warning signs for collusive price markdown. Which recorded pattern should receive focused attention?

  1. Refunded card identifiers recur across unrelated customer transactions.
  2. Unusual discounts are concentrated on one customer and one employee.
  3. Disputed check signatures and check stock usage do not match approvals.
  4. Paid-out entries have generic descriptions but no corresponding invoices.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

This observation is a pertinent indicator of Collusive price markdown because sale-price manipulation improperly transfers value to an accomplice through undercharging. The practical corroborating procedure is to analyze override rates by operator, customer, item and shift; the indicator by itself does not establish intent or error.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed observation fits Manipulated return-to-gift-card, where a fabricated return transfers store value instead of extracting physical currency, rather than the particular mechanism in Collusive price markdown. Unlike the clue for Manipulated return-to-gift-card, the more directly related indicator for Collusive price markdown is this: Unusual discounts are concentrated on one customer and one employee.

C:

The proposed observation fits Forged check-maker signature, where the perpetrator creates a payment instrument without the genuine drawer authorization, rather than the particular mechanism in Collusive price markdown. Unlike the clue for Forged check-maker signature, the more directly related indicator for Collusive price markdown is this: Unusual discounts are concentrated on one customer and one employee.

D:

The proposed observation fits Unauthorized register cash payout, where the register balance is reduced through a purported business disbursement rather than a sale, rather than the particular mechanism in Collusive price markdown. Unlike the clue for Unauthorized register cash payout, the more directly related indicator for Collusive price markdown is this: Unusual discounts are concentrated on one customer and one employee.

Question 448

An examination of advance-fee lottery fraud begins with this observation: A surprise prize demand has no verifiable entry and requires upfront payment. Which follow-up procedure gives the most direct evidence?

  1. Verify the awarding organization independently and follow payments to recipients.
  2. Verify platform licensing and wallet flows instead of trusting account screenshots.
  3. Trace cash sources for investor payouts and independently verify held assets.
  4. Analyze compensation flows and genuine external customer transactions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

For the Advance-fee lottery fraud concern, the procedure tests source evidence behind this observation: A surprise prize demand has no verifiable entry and requires upfront payment. This matters because the promise of future value is used to extract an immediate fee without a real award; independent corroboration is necessary before accepting any conclusion.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This comparison primarily addresses Pig-butchering investment scam, in which long-form social engineering combines relationship grooming with fabricated investment performance; because the present question instead concerns Advance-fee lottery fraud, reviewers should verify the awarding organization independently and follow payments to recipients rather than apply a check designed for Pig-butchering investment scam.

C:

This comparison primarily addresses Ponzi payout financing, in which a Ponzi structure pays old investors with new funds while misrepresenting actual returns; because the present question instead concerns Advance-fee lottery fraud, reviewers should verify the awarding organization independently and follow payments to recipients rather than apply a check designed for Ponzi payout financing.

D:

This comparison primarily addresses Recruitment-driven pyramid, in which recruitment dependence distinguishes a pyramid structure from ordinary retail distribution; because the present question instead concerns Advance-fee lottery fraud, reviewers should verify the awarding organization independently and follow payments to recipients rather than apply a check designed for Recruitment-driven pyramid.

Question 449

An exception review involving artificial urgency sole-source award identifies the following: Planning records show sufficient lead time and no genuine critical shortage. Which evidence comparison most directly evaluates the facts?

  1. Analyze longitudinal award, bid spread and bidder-relationship patterns.
  2. Review documented emergency grounds against prior planning and demand.
  3. Compare requirement drafts, market alternatives and supplier communications.
  4. Trace withdrawal patterns, communications and supplier compensation.
  5. Compare bid preparation artifacts, related owners and independent market estimates.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

For the Artificial urgency sole-source award concern, the procedure tests source evidence behind this observation: Planning records show sufficient lead time and no genuine critical shortage. This matters because false urgency defeats normal competitive sourcing under an unjustified exception; independent corroboration is necessary before accepting any conclusion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This comparison primarily addresses Bid rotation agreement, in which bid rotation is an agreement to allocate wins rather than genuine independent competition; because the present question instead concerns Artificial urgency sole-source award, reviewers should review documented emergency grounds against prior planning and demand rather than apply a check designed for Bid rotation agreement.

C:

This comparison primarily addresses Tender specifications tailored to one supplier, in which bid tailoring manipulates the solicitation before vendors compete; because the present question instead concerns Artificial urgency sole-source award, reviewers should review documented emergency grounds against prior planning and demand rather than apply a check designed for Tender specifications tailored to one supplier.

D:

This comparison primarily addresses Bid suppression agreement, in which suppressing bids reduces competition by preventing otherwise viable offers; because the present question instead concerns Artificial urgency sole-source award, reviewers should review documented emergency grounds against prior planning and demand rather than apply a check designed for Bid suppression agreement.

E:

This comparison primarily addresses Complementary cover bidding, in which cover bids create an illusion of competition while protecting a preselected winner; because the present question instead concerns Artificial urgency sole-source award, reviewers should review documented emergency grounds against prior planning and demand rather than apply a check designed for Complementary cover bidding.

Question 450

A process owner is assessing safeguards for liquidation versus reorganization. The mechanism is: Reorganization aims to preserve or restructure the enterprise; liquidation ordinarily realizes assets for distribution. Which control addresses it most directly?

  1. Choose an appropriate lawful restructuring process rather than assuming all insolvencies require liquidation.
  2. Require sworn disclosure supported by reconciled accounting records.
  3. Segregate custody and oversight of estate assets under the applicable insolvency framework.
  4. Apply supplier exposure controls and monitor sudden anomalous credit demand.
  5. Apply consistent creditor-payment governance and seek jurisdiction-specific insolvency advice.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The control directly addresses the failure point in Liquidation versus reorganization, since reorganization aims to preserve or restructure the enterprise; liquidation ordinarily realizes assets for distribution. A subsequent independent review could compare the proposed plan with liquidity forecasts and creditor treatment to identify exceptions that bypassed the safeguard.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This safeguard is directed primarily at False insolvency schedules rather than Liquidation versus reorganization, because false asset and debt statements distort the administration of the insolvency estate. Unlike the control for False insolvency schedules, the more direct design for Liquidation versus reorganization is to choose an appropriate lawful restructuring process rather than assuming all insolvencies require liquidation; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

C:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Trustee and receiver accountability rather than Liquidation versus reorganization, because a trustee or receiver acts within a defined legal appointment to administer assets, not as an unrestricted owner. Unlike the control for Trustee and receiver accountability, the more direct design for Liquidation versus reorganization is to choose an appropriate lawful restructuring process rather than assuming all insolvencies require liquidation; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

D:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Bankruptcy bust-out credit buying rather than Liquidation versus reorganization, because a planned bust-out extracts value from vendors through deliberate nonpayment and asset diversion. Unlike the control for Bankruptcy bust-out credit buying, the more direct design for Liquidation versus reorganization is to choose an appropriate lawful restructuring process rather than assuming all insolvencies require liquidation; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

E:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Preferential creditor payment review rather than Liquidation versus reorganization, because preference rules can permit recovery of certain pre-filing payments without proving a fictitious invoice or ordinary theft. Unlike the control for Preferential creditor payment review, the more direct design for Liquidation versus reorganization is to choose an appropriate lawful restructuring process rather than assuming all insolvencies require liquidation; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

Certified Fraud Examiner - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes (CFE - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes) Practice Tests