ACFE CFE - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes (Certified Fraud Examiner - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes) Practice Test 43

Question 420

An exception review involving contractor cost mischarging identifies the following: Timesheets and equipment logs place charges outside the contract activity. Which evidence comparison most directly evaluates the facts?

  1. Reconcile signed receiving logs and physical counts with invoices.
  2. Reconcile submitted costs to job-level records and contractual allowability.
  3. Match delivered batch identifiers and tests to the contract specification.
  4. Compare original scope, approved modifications and actual field measurements.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

For the Contractor cost mischarging concern, the procedure tests source evidence behind this observation: Timesheets and equipment logs place charges outside the contract activity. This matters because miscoding expenses shifts ineligible work costs onto the purchasing agency; independent corroboration is necessary before accepting any conclusion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This comparison primarily addresses Short delivery on public contract, in which billing for undelivered quantities converts a legitimate contract into an overpayment; because the present question instead concerns Contractor cost mischarging, reviewers should reconcile submitted costs to job-level records and contractual allowability rather than apply a check designed for Short delivery on public contract.

C:

This comparison primarily addresses Nonconforming material substitution, in which the vendor obtains full payment while supplying inferior goods; because the present question instead concerns Contractor cost mischarging, reviewers should reconcile submitted costs to job-level records and contractual allowability rather than apply a check designed for Nonconforming material substitution.

D:

This comparison primarily addresses Post-award change-order inflation, in which post-award modifications can recoup an artificially low bid or extract excessive payments; because the present question instead concerns Contractor cost mischarging, reviewers should reconcile submitted costs to job-level records and contractual allowability rather than apply a check designed for Post-award change-order inflation.

Question 421

A process owner is assessing safeguards for unauthorized bonus disbursement. The mechanism is: Improper one-off payments exploit weak controls over discretionary compensation. Which control addresses it most directly?

  1. Separate incentive authorization from payroll entry and payment release.
  2. Require documented business travel and independent review of receipts.
  3. Require strong authentication and separate approval for bank-detail updates.
  4. Automatically synchronize approved terminations with payroll suspension and reconcile exceptions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The control directly addresses the failure point in Unauthorized bonus disbursement, since improper one-off payments exploit weak controls over discretionary compensation. A subsequent independent review could compare exception payroll components with board-approved bonus rules and signatures to identify exceptions that bypassed the safeguard.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Fictitious travel reimbursement rather than Unauthorized bonus disbursement, because the claimant seeks payment for an expense that was never incurred. Unlike the control for Fictitious travel reimbursement, the more direct design for Unauthorized bonus disbursement is to separate incentive authorization from payroll entry and payment release; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

C:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Payroll direct-deposit diversion rather than Unauthorized bonus disbursement, because a genuine employee's wages are redirected by altering settlement data. Unlike the control for Payroll direct-deposit diversion, the more direct design for Unauthorized bonus disbursement is to separate incentive authorization from payroll entry and payment release; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

D:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Terminated worker retained on payroll rather than Unauthorized bonus disbursement, because continuing pay to a departed employee produces a disbursement with no current employment basis. Unlike the control for Terminated worker retained on payroll, the more direct design for Unauthorized bonus disbursement is to separate incentive authorization from payroll entry and payment release; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

Question 422

The review team observes the following: Gate headcounts exceed issued ticket counts and corresponding deposits. It seeks one targeted detection step and one preventive measure that address the same underlying vulnerability. Which pairing is best?

  1. Diagnostic: Reconcile turnstile counts and ticket ranges to till reports and banked cash; safeguard: Assign cash receipt posting to an employee who cannot handle incoming funds.
  2. Diagnostic: Reconcile turnstile counts and ticket ranges to till reports and banked cash; safeguard: Require issued sequential tickets and reconcile unused stock with entry counts.
  3. Diagnostic: Trace a sample of individual customer remittances through deposit and account-credit dates; safeguard: Use numbered sales receipts and independent inventory-to-sales reconciliation.
  4. Diagnostic: Confirm customer remittances against cash receipts and subsequent write-offs; safeguard: Require issued sequential tickets and reconcile unused stock with entry counts.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The test addresses Unrecorded admission-fee skimming by targeting this observation: Gate headcounts exceed issued ticket counts and corresponding deposits. The accompanying safeguard—require issued sequential tickets and reconcile unused stock with entry counts—counters the same opportunity, so both checking and prevention concern one cause.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The diagnostic correctly examines Unrecorded admission-fee skimming by having reviewers reconcile turnstile counts and ticket ranges to till reports and banked cash, but the safeguard is for Receivable lapping. That prevention step responds to a different mechanism: Lapping rolls forward a shortage by applying one customer's payment to another account.

C:

The evidence test relates to Receivable lapping, whereas the proposed safeguard protects against Off-register retail skimming; neither directly resolves Unrecorded admission-fee skimming. Unlike the Receivable lapping test and Off-register retail skimming safeguard, the investigation of Unrecorded admission-fee skimming requires reviewers to reconcile turnstile counts and ticket ranges to till reports and banked cash, followed by assessment of the matching control point.

D:

The proposed safeguard is relevant to Unrecorded admission-fee skimming, but the diagnostic tests Accounts-receivable skimming rather than the identified anomaly. That test is aimed at records involving the payer has a receipt while the customer account remains open or is adjusted unusually; the specified case instead calls for reviewers to reconcile turnstile counts and ticket ranges to till reports and banked cash.

Question 423

For a review of nonconforming material substitution, which evidence-based warning sign is the most specific?

  1. Change orders grow quickly without matching design changes or documented quantities.
  2. Timesheets and equipment logs place charges outside the contract activity.
  3. Receiving counts and inventory entries fall below billed quantities.
  4. Independent laboratory tests conflict with certificates of conformity.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

This observation is a pertinent indicator of Nonconforming material substitution because the vendor obtains full payment while supplying inferior goods. The practical corroborating procedure is to match delivered batch identifiers and tests to the contract specification; the indicator by itself does not establish intent or error.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed observation fits Post-award change-order inflation, where post-award modifications can recoup an artificially low bid or extract excessive payments, rather than the particular mechanism in Nonconforming material substitution. Unlike the clue for Post-award change-order inflation, the more directly related indicator for Nonconforming material substitution is this: Independent laboratory tests conflict with certificates of conformity.

B:

The proposed observation fits Contractor cost mischarging, where miscoding expenses shifts ineligible work costs onto the purchasing agency, rather than the particular mechanism in Nonconforming material substitution. Unlike the clue for Contractor cost mischarging, the more directly related indicator for Nonconforming material substitution is this: Independent laboratory tests conflict with certificates of conformity.

C:

The proposed observation fits Short delivery on public contract, where billing for undelivered quantities converts a legitimate contract into an overpayment, rather than the particular mechanism in Nonconforming material substitution. Unlike the clue for Short delivery on public contract, the more directly related indicator for Nonconforming material substitution is this: Independent laboratory tests conflict with certificates of conformity.

Question 424

The team is assessing a potential supplier kickback for selection discrepancy. Initial observation: The employee's private benefits track the contractor's paid invoice volume. Which verification step is most informative?

  1. Map beneficial owners and family relationships against employee procurement influence.
  2. Trace third-party payment flows and ownership while comparing award rationale.
  3. Compare certification dates with quality results and inspector-vendor relationships.
  4. Cross-check procurement decisions, vendor performance and unexplained employee benefits.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

For the Supplier kickback for selection concern, the procedure tests source evidence behind this observation: The employee's private benefits track the contractor's paid invoice volume. This matters because a kickback rewards an official for steering organizational business rather than for legitimate services; independent corroboration is necessary before accepting any conclusion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This comparison primarily addresses Undisclosed supplier ownership, in which a personal interest compromises objectivity even before a direct bribe is proven; because the present question instead concerns Supplier kickback for selection, reviewers should cross-check procurement decisions, vendor performance and unexplained employee benefits rather than apply a check designed for Undisclosed supplier ownership.

B:

This comparison primarily addresses Vendor-funded political favor, in which indirect benefits can constitute corruption when used to induce improper contract decisions; because the present question instead concerns Supplier kickback for selection, reviewers should cross-check procurement decisions, vendor performance and unexplained employee benefits rather than apply a check designed for Vendor-funded political favor.

C:

This comparison primarily addresses Bribe to overlook inspections, in which a corrupt payment changes official judgment to allow nonconforming work; because the present question instead concerns Supplier kickback for selection, reviewers should cross-check procurement decisions, vendor performance and unexplained employee benefits rather than apply a check designed for Bribe to overlook inspections.

Question 425

Two separate review files raise different issues. File A: A buyer writes proprietary product dimensions into a public tender without functional justification so only one favored bidder qualifies. File B: A procurement official invents an emergency to bypass competition for a routine acquisition. Which pairing accurately classifies both files?

  1. File A: Artificial urgency sole-source award; File B: Tender specifications tailored to one supplier.
  2. File A: Tender specifications tailored to one supplier; File B: Artificial urgency sole-source award.
  3. File A: Tender specifications tailored to one supplier; File B: Time-and-materials labor padding.
  4. File A: Bid rotation agreement; File B: Artificial urgency sole-source award.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

File A is Tender specifications tailored to one supplier because bid tailoring manipulates the solicitation before vendors compete, while File B is Artificial urgency sole-source award because false urgency defeats normal competitive sourcing under an unjustified exception. The evidence chains differ: for File A, reviewers should compare requirement drafts, market alternatives and supplier communications; for File B, they should review documented emergency grounds against prior planning and demand.

Incorrect Answers

A:

File A is misidentified as Artificial urgency sole-source award instead of Tender specifications tailored to one supplier; File B is misidentified as Tender specifications tailored to one supplier instead of Artificial urgency sole-source award. With the proposed pairing Artificial urgency sole-source award / Tender specifications tailored to one supplier, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that specifications mirror one vendor catalog while alternatives meet the operational need, whereas File B shows that planning records show sufficient lead time and no genuine critical shortage. For these Tender specifications tailored to one supplier and Artificial urgency sole-source award files, choosing the pair Artificial urgency sole-source award / Tender specifications tailored to one supplier would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

C:

File B is misidentified as Time-and-materials labor padding instead of Artificial urgency sole-source award. With the proposed pairing Tender specifications tailored to one supplier / Time-and-materials labor padding, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that specifications mirror one vendor catalog while alternatives meet the operational need, whereas File B shows that planning records show sufficient lead time and no genuine critical shortage. For these Tender specifications tailored to one supplier and Artificial urgency sole-source award files, choosing the pair Tender specifications tailored to one supplier / Time-and-materials labor padding would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

D:

File A is misidentified as Bid rotation agreement instead of Tender specifications tailored to one supplier. With the proposed pairing Bid rotation agreement / Artificial urgency sole-source award, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that specifications mirror one vendor catalog while alternatives meet the operational need, whereas File B shows that planning records show sufficient lead time and no genuine critical shortage. For these Tender specifications tailored to one supplier and Artificial urgency sole-source award files, choosing the pair Bid rotation agreement / Artificial urgency sole-source award would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

Question 426

The risk team has identified the following printed blueprint removal exposure: Optical capture can remove trade secrets without any network download event. Which proposed prevention step is most effective?

  1. Separate privileged administration from data extraction approval and alert on large exports.
  2. Limit code access by role and monitor unusual bulk downloads and external sharing.
  3. Time-limit vendor credentials and enforce scoped access with periodic recertification.
  4. Prohibit unauthorized photography and escort visitors in sensitive production areas.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The control directly addresses the failure point in Printed blueprint removal, since optical capture can remove trade secrets without any network download event. A subsequent independent review could correlate tour permissions, camera monitoring and design-document custody to identify exceptions that bypassed the safeguard.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Privileged bulk data export rather than Printed blueprint removal, because excess technical privilege can permit insider misappropriation of valuable information. Unlike the control for Privileged bulk data export, the more direct design for Printed blueprint removal is to prohibit unauthorized photography and escort visitors in sensitive production areas; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

B:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Source-code repository exfiltration rather than Printed blueprint removal, because confidential software is removed through insider access, not obtained from public sources. Unlike the control for Source-code repository exfiltration, the more direct design for Printed blueprint removal is to prohibit unauthorized photography and escort visitors in sensitive production areas; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

C:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Supplier-access data theft rather than Printed blueprint removal, because compromised or misused partner access can become a route for proprietary-data loss. Unlike the control for Supplier-access data theft, the more direct design for Printed blueprint removal is to prohibit unauthorized photography and escort visitors in sensitive production areas; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

Question 427

The review team observes the following: Repeated medical-necessity forms use boilerplate unsupported by examinations. It seeks one targeted detection step and one preventive measure that address the same underlying vulnerability. Which pairing is best?

  1. Diagnostic: Compare documentation and procedure descriptions with claim-code requirements; safeguard: Require documented clinical necessity and review of high-risk authorizations.
  2. Diagnostic: Review code combinations against current payer bundling rules and medical records; safeguard: Require conflict disclosure and compliant separation of clinical decisions from payments.
  3. Diagnostic: Review medical records and criteria supporting prescribed devices; safeguard: Require documented clinical necessity and review of high-risk authorizations.
  4. Diagnostic: Review medical records and criteria supporting prescribed devices; safeguard: Apply claim-edit controls for disallowed unbundling.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The test addresses False medical necessity certification by targeting this observation: Repeated medical-necessity forms use boilerplate unsupported by examinations. The accompanying safeguard—require documented clinical necessity and review of high-risk authorizations—counters the same opportunity, so both checking and prevention concern one cause.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed safeguard is relevant to False medical necessity certification, but the diagnostic tests Medical service upcoding rather than the identified anomaly. That test is aimed at records involving clinical notes support lower-intensity care than the codes billed; the specified case instead calls for reviewers to review medical records and criteria supporting prescribed devices.

B:

The evidence test relates to Unbundled procedure billing, whereas the proposed safeguard protects against Prescribing referral kickback; neither directly resolves False medical necessity certification. Unlike the Unbundled procedure billing test and Prescribing referral kickback safeguard, the investigation of False medical necessity certification requires reviewers to review medical records and criteria supporting prescribed devices, followed by assessment of the matching control point.

D:

The diagnostic correctly examines False medical necessity certification by having reviewers review medical records and criteria supporting prescribed devices, but the safeguard is for Unbundled procedure billing. That prevention step responds to a different mechanism: Splitting a bundled service into extra claim lines can produce unjustified reimbursement.

Question 428

The case file describes the following: Management posts ordinary current-period advertising invoices to a long-lived asset account to improve earnings. Which classification best explains the events?

  1. Inflated year-end inventory
  2. Concealed sales-side agreement
  3. Capitalized routine operating costs
  4. Unrecorded accrued liabilities

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Capitalized routine operating costs fits the facts because moving a period expense into assets understates expenses and overstates profit and assets; the distinguishing observation is that unusual new assets have expense-like vendor descriptions and no future qualifying benefit. To test this interpretation, a reviewer should inspect additions to capital accounts against invoice descriptions and capitalization policies.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inflated year-end inventory would involve a different sequence from Capitalized routine operating costs: overstated ending inventory usually understates cost of goods sold and inflates earnings. Unlike the rejected Inflated year-end inventory label, the evidence concerns Capitalized routine operating costs, since unusual new assets have expense-like vendor descriptions and no future qualifying benefit; reviewers should inspect additions to capital accounts against invoice descriptions and capitalization policies.

B:

Concealed sales-side agreement would involve a different sequence from Capitalized routine operating costs: undisclosed contractual rights may defeat the assertion that a recorded sale is final or earned. Unlike the rejected Concealed sales-side agreement label, the evidence concerns Capitalized routine operating costs, since unusual new assets have expense-like vendor descriptions and no future qualifying benefit; reviewers should inspect additions to capital accounts against invoice descriptions and capitalization policies.

D:

Unrecorded accrued liabilities would involve a different sequence from Capitalized routine operating costs: omitting obligations understates liabilities and costs rather than creating new cash resources. Unlike the rejected Unrecorded accrued liabilities label, the evidence concerns Capitalized routine operating costs, since unusual new assets have expense-like vendor descriptions and no future qualifying benefit; reviewers should inspect additions to capital accounts against invoice descriptions and capitalization policies.

Question 429

Two separate review files raise different issues. File A: A clinic bills a complex, high-paying procedure code for routine visits actually performed. File B: A provider separately charges component tests that should be billed together under applicable rules. Which pairing accurately classifies both files?

  1. File A: Medical service upcoding; File B: False medical necessity certification.
  2. File A: Phantom patient encounters; File B: Unbundled procedure billing.
  3. File A: Medical service upcoding; File B: Unbundled procedure billing.
  4. File A: Unbundled procedure billing; File B: Medical service upcoding.
  5. File A: False medical necessity certification; File B: Medical service upcoding.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

File A is Medical service upcoding because upcoding inflates payment by assigning a code for a more expensive service than was delivered, while File B is Unbundled procedure billing because splitting a bundled service into extra claim lines can produce unjustified reimbursement. The evidence chains differ: for File A, reviewers should compare documentation and procedure descriptions with claim-code requirements; for File B, they should review code combinations against current payer bundling rules and medical records.

Incorrect Answers

A:

File B is misidentified as False medical necessity certification instead of Unbundled procedure billing. With the proposed pairing Medical service upcoding / False medical necessity certification, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that clinical notes support lower-intensity care than the codes billed, whereas File B shows that claim lines repeatedly contain component codes that belong to a bundled service. For these Medical service upcoding and Unbundled procedure billing files, choosing the pair Medical service upcoding / False medical necessity certification would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

B:

File A is misidentified as Phantom patient encounters instead of Medical service upcoding. With the proposed pairing Phantom patient encounters / Unbundled procedure billing, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that clinical notes support lower-intensity care than the codes billed, whereas File B shows that claim lines repeatedly contain component codes that belong to a bundled service. For these Medical service upcoding and Unbundled procedure billing files, choosing the pair Phantom patient encounters / Unbundled procedure billing would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

D:

File A is misidentified as Unbundled procedure billing instead of Medical service upcoding; File B is misidentified as Medical service upcoding instead of Unbundled procedure billing. With the proposed pairing Unbundled procedure billing / Medical service upcoding, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that clinical notes support lower-intensity care than the codes billed, whereas File B shows that claim lines repeatedly contain component codes that belong to a bundled service. For these Medical service upcoding and Unbundled procedure billing files, choosing the pair Unbundled procedure billing / Medical service upcoding would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

E:

File A is misidentified as False medical necessity certification instead of Medical service upcoding; File B is misidentified as Medical service upcoding instead of Unbundled procedure billing. With the proposed pairing False medical necessity certification / Medical service upcoding, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that clinical notes support lower-intensity care than the codes billed, whereas File B shows that claim lines repeatedly contain component codes that belong to a bundled service. For these Medical service upcoding and Unbundled procedure billing files, choosing the pair False medical necessity certification / Medical service upcoding would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

Question 430

The review team observes the following: Surprise cash counts fall below the petty-cash ledger balance. It seeks one targeted detection step and one preventive measure that address the same underlying vulnerability. Which pairing is best?

  1. Diagnostic: Compare price lists and independent customer receipts with cash register line data; safeguard: Use dual counts, tamper-evident bags and independent bank reconciliation.
  2. Diagnostic: Recount the fund unexpectedly and inspect replenishment vouchers; safeguard: Limit key access and assign independent custodial surprise counts.
  3. Diagnostic: Match donor confirmations and sealed-envelope counts against bank deposits; safeguard: Limit key access and assign independent custodial surprise counts.
  4. Diagnostic: Recount the fund unexpectedly and inspect replenishment vouchers; safeguard: Restrict manual price overrides and review exception reports independently.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The test addresses Cash-safe theft by targeting this observation: Surprise cash counts fall below the petty-cash ledger balance. The accompanying safeguard—limit key access and assign independent custodial surprise counts—counters the same opportunity, so both checking and prevention concern one cause.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The evidence test relates to Cash-sale understatement, whereas the proposed safeguard protects against Deposit-bag substitution; neither directly resolves Cash-safe theft. Unlike the Cash-sale understatement test and Deposit-bag substitution safeguard, the investigation of Cash-safe theft requires reviewers to recount the fund unexpectedly and inspect replenishment vouchers, followed by assessment of the matching control point.

C:

The proposed safeguard is relevant to Cash-safe theft, but the diagnostic tests Charity donation skimming rather than the identified anomaly. That test is aimed at records involving donor acknowledgment totals exceed the logged and deposited contributions; the specified case instead calls for reviewers to recount the fund unexpectedly and inspect replenishment vouchers.

D:

The diagnostic correctly examines Cash-safe theft by having reviewers recount the fund unexpectedly and inspect replenishment vouchers, but the safeguard is for Cash-sale understatement. That prevention step responds to a different mechanism: The portion never entered in the till is skimmed even though a partial sale appears in the books.

Certified Fraud Examiner - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes (CFE - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes) Practice Tests