ACFE CFE - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes (Certified Fraud Examiner - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes) Practice Test 4

Question 30

The available records suggest receivable lapping: Credits are posted repeatedly to the wrong customer or with shifting dates. Which TWO actions together provide one direct check and one targeted preventive measure? Choose TWO.

  1. Separate cash custody and reconciliation with surprise cash counts.
  2. Trace a sample of individual customer remittances through deposit and account-credit dates.
  3. Assign cash receipt posting to an employee who cannot handle incoming funds.
  4. The payer has a receipt while the customer account remains open or is adjusted unusually.
  5. Compare bank credits with sealed-bag logs, deposit preparation and independent count records.

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

This procedure verifies the records implicated by Receivable lapping; the observed anomaly is that credits are posted repeatedly to the wrong customer or with shifting dates. For the Receivable lapping concern, it can distinguish errors and innocent explanations from possible misstatements or wrongdoing before reaching a conclusion.

C:

This safeguard directly reduces Receivable lapping exposure because lapping rolls forward a shortage by applying one customer's payment to another account. The control should be monitored using records from this check: Trace a sample of individual customer remittances through deposit and account-credit dates.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The chosen preventive action chiefly mitigates Recorded-till cash larceny, where cash larceny steals receipts after they have been recorded, leaving a book-to-cash shortage. For Receivable lapping, unlike Recorded-till cash larceny, the targeted safeguard is to assign cash receipt posting to an employee who cannot handle incoming funds because the exposure occurs at a different point.

D:

The listed warning sign specifically concerns Accounts-receivable skimming, where the employee captures incoming funds and conceals the missing credit to the customer's balance, not the requested Receivable lapping review. Unlike the Accounts-receivable skimming indicator, the relevant signal for Receivable lapping is this: Credits are posted repeatedly to the wrong customer or with shifting dates.

E:

This procedure tests Deposit-bag substitution rather than the named Receivable lapping concern. The Deposit-bag substitution evidence is deposit documentation and bank-confirmed credits disagree despite correct till totals, while the Receivable lapping path requires reviewers to trace a sample of individual customer remittances through deposit and account-credit dates.

Question 31

The review team observes the following: Independent materials tests disagree with approved completion certificates. It seeks one targeted detection step and one preventive measure that address the same underlying vulnerability. Which pairing is best?

  1. Diagnostic: Compare engineering test results, supplier records and acceptance approvals; safeguard: Release grant tranches against independently verified deliverables.
  2. Diagnostic: Compare application scoring and decision records with declared program requirements; safeguard: Require independent quality verification before public funds are released.
  3. Diagnostic: Confirm milestone completion with independent beneficiaries and time records; safeguard: Enforce unique cost allocation records and duplicate-charge analytics.
  4. Diagnostic: Compare engineering test results, supplier records and acceptance approvals; safeguard: Require independent quality verification before public funds are released.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The test addresses Substandard public works certification by targeting this observation: Independent materials tests disagree with approved completion certificates. The accompanying safeguard—require independent quality verification before public funds are released—counters the same opportunity, so both checking and prevention concern one cause.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The diagnostic correctly examines Substandard public works certification by having reviewers compare engineering test results, supplier records and acceptance approvals, but the safeguard is for False government grant deliverables. That prevention step responds to a different mechanism: A grant recipient obtains public funds by falsely certifying eligible performance.

B:

The proposed safeguard is relevant to Substandard public works certification, but the diagnostic tests Politically directed benefit awards rather than the identified anomaly. That test is aimed at records involving award outcomes diverge from documented eligibility criteria without defensible exceptions; the specified case instead calls for reviewers to compare engineering test results, supplier records and acceptance approvals.

C:

The evidence test relates to False government grant deliverables, whereas the proposed safeguard protects against Double-charged public grant costs; neither directly resolves Substandard public works certification. Unlike the False government grant deliverables test and Double-charged public grant costs safeguard, the investigation of Substandard public works certification requires reviewers to compare engineering test results, supplier records and acceptance approvals, followed by assessment of the matching control point.

Question 32

The review team observes the following: Unusual new assets have expense-like vendor descriptions and no future qualifying benefit. It seeks one targeted detection step and one preventive measure that address the same underlying vulnerability. Which pairing is best?

  1. Diagnostic: Perform independent counts and test ownership and valuation of selected stock; safeguard: Require legal and finance review of all amendments affecting recognition.
  2. Diagnostic: Search subsequent disbursements for missing accruals and compare receiving logs with liabilities; safeguard: Apply reviewed capitalization thresholds and expense nonqualifying costs.
  3. Diagnostic: Inspect additions to capital accounts against invoice descriptions and capitalization policies; safeguard: Segregate count teams and reconcile physical results with perpetual records.
  4. Diagnostic: Inspect additions to capital accounts against invoice descriptions and capitalization policies; safeguard: Apply reviewed capitalization thresholds and expense nonqualifying costs.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The test addresses Capitalized routine operating costs by targeting this observation: Unusual new assets have expense-like vendor descriptions and no future qualifying benefit. The accompanying safeguard—apply reviewed capitalization thresholds and expense nonqualifying costs—counters the same opportunity, so both checking and prevention concern one cause.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The evidence test relates to Inflated year-end inventory, whereas the proposed safeguard protects against Concealed sales-side agreement; neither directly resolves Capitalized routine operating costs. Unlike the Inflated year-end inventory test and Concealed sales-side agreement safeguard, the investigation of Capitalized routine operating costs requires reviewers to inspect additions to capital accounts against invoice descriptions and capitalization policies, followed by assessment of the matching control point.

B:

The proposed safeguard is relevant to Capitalized routine operating costs, but the diagnostic tests Unrecorded accrued liabilities rather than the identified anomaly. That test is aimed at records involving post-close payments relate to services delivered before the balance-sheet date; the specified case instead calls for reviewers to inspect additions to capital accounts against invoice descriptions and capitalization policies.

C:

The diagnostic correctly examines Capitalized routine operating costs by having reviewers inspect additions to capital accounts against invoice descriptions and capitalization policies, but the safeguard is for Inflated year-end inventory. That prevention step responds to a different mechanism: Overstated ending inventory usually understates cost of goods sold and inflates earnings.

Question 33

Control designers are focusing on the mechanism behind trustee and receiver accountability: A trustee or receiver acts within a defined legal appointment to administer assets, not as an unrestricted owner. Which measure best limits that opportunity?

  1. Segregate custody and oversight of estate assets under the applicable insolvency framework.
  2. Choose an appropriate lawful restructuring process rather than assuming all insolvencies require liquidation.
  3. Require sworn disclosure supported by reconciled accounting records.
  4. Apply consistent creditor-payment governance and seek jurisdiction-specific insolvency advice.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The control directly addresses the failure point in Trustee and receiver accountability, since a trustee or receiver acts within a defined legal appointment to administer assets, not as an unrestricted owner. A subsequent independent review could review appointment orders, estate ledgers and independent disposal evidence to identify exceptions that bypassed the safeguard.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Liquidation versus reorganization rather than Trustee and receiver accountability, because reorganization aims to preserve or restructure the enterprise; liquidation ordinarily realizes assets for distribution. Unlike the control for Liquidation versus reorganization, the more direct design for Trustee and receiver accountability is to segregate custody and oversight of estate assets under the applicable insolvency framework; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

C:

This safeguard is directed primarily at False insolvency schedules rather than Trustee and receiver accountability, because false asset and debt statements distort the administration of the insolvency estate. Unlike the control for False insolvency schedules, the more direct design for Trustee and receiver accountability is to segregate custody and oversight of estate assets under the applicable insolvency framework; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

D:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Preferential creditor payment review rather than Trustee and receiver accountability, because preference rules can permit recovery of certain pre-filing payments without proving a fictitious invoice or ordinary theft. Unlike the control for Preferential creditor payment review, the more direct design for Trustee and receiver accountability is to segregate custody and oversight of estate assets under the applicable insolvency framework; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

Question 34

The case file describes the following: A business orders substantial inventory on supplier credit with a prearranged plan to resell it and default. Which classification best explains the events?

  1. Liquidation versus reorganization
  2. Fictitious creditor claim
  3. False insolvency schedules
  4. Pre-filing fraudulent asset transfer
  5. Bankruptcy bust-out credit buying

Explanation

Correct Answer

E:

Bankruptcy bust-out credit buying fits the facts because a planned bust-out extracts value from vendors through deliberate nonpayment and asset diversion; the distinguishing observation is that purchases accelerate before filing while sale proceeds are diverted. To test this interpretation, a reviewer should trace inventory purchases, resale proceeds and pre-filing management communications.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Liquidation versus reorganization would involve a different sequence from Bankruptcy bust-out credit buying: reorganization aims to preserve or restructure the enterprise; liquidation ordinarily realizes assets for distribution. Unlike the rejected Liquidation versus reorganization label, the evidence concerns Bankruptcy bust-out credit buying, since purchases accelerate before filing while sale proceeds are diverted; reviewers should trace inventory purchases, resale proceeds and pre-filing management communications.

B:

Fictitious creditor claim would involve a different sequence from Bankruptcy bust-out credit buying: a manufactured liability can dilute legitimate creditors' recoveries. Unlike the rejected Fictitious creditor claim label, the evidence concerns Bankruptcy bust-out credit buying, since purchases accelerate before filing while sale proceeds are diverted; reviewers should trace inventory purchases, resale proceeds and pre-filing management communications.

C:

False insolvency schedules would involve a different sequence from Bankruptcy bust-out credit buying: false asset and debt statements distort the administration of the insolvency estate. Unlike the rejected False insolvency schedules label, the evidence concerns Bankruptcy bust-out credit buying, since purchases accelerate before filing while sale proceeds are diverted; reviewers should trace inventory purchases, resale proceeds and pre-filing management communications.

D:

Pre-filing fraudulent asset transfer would involve a different sequence from Bankruptcy bust-out credit buying: transfers intended to put assets beyond creditors may be challengeable under applicable insolvency law. Unlike the rejected Pre-filing fraudulent asset transfer label, the evidence concerns Bankruptcy bust-out credit buying, since purchases accelerate before filing while sale proceeds are diverted; reviewers should trace inventory purchases, resale proceeds and pre-filing management communications.

Question 35

Control designers are focusing on the mechanism behind ach beneficiary substitution: The fraud redirects a genuine disbursement through altered settlement coordinates. Which measure best limits that opportunity?

  1. Have a reviewer independent of disbursements compare payees and vouchers.
  2. Independently vet new vendors and segregate setup, approval and payment.
  3. Verify account changes using independently sourced supplier contact details.
  4. Require second-party approval for payments benefiting an authorized signer.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The control directly addresses the failure point in ACH beneficiary substitution, since the fraud redirects a genuine disbursement through altered settlement coordinates. A subsequent independent review could compare beneficiary master-file history with verified supplier instructions and payment files to identify exceptions that bypassed the safeguard.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Concealed check diversion rather than ACH beneficiary substitution, because the cash leaves via an unauthorized payment camouflaged by accounting classification. Unlike the control for Concealed check diversion, the more direct design for ACH beneficiary substitution is to verify account changes using independently sourced supplier contact details; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

B:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Shell-company invoice billing rather than ACH beneficiary substitution, because a nonoperating entity receives organizational money against false billing support. Unlike the control for Shell-company invoice billing, the more direct design for ACH beneficiary substitution is to verify account changes using independently sourced supplier contact details; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

D:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Authorized-maker self-payment rather than ACH beneficiary substitution, because authority to sign does not confer permission to take company funds for personal use. Unlike the control for Authorized-maker self-payment, the more direct design for ACH beneficiary substitution is to verify account changes using independently sourced supplier contact details; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

Question 36

The team is assessing a potential pump-and-dump stock promotion discrepancy. Initial observation: Coordinated promotional bursts coincide with insider selling and extreme price reversals. Which verification step is most informative?

  1. Compare recommended product risk with the suitability and client-knowledge records.
  2. Compare trading timestamps, information access and public-disclosure chronology.
  3. Correlate promotional communications with trading accounts and beneficial ownership.
  4. Analyze account turnover, costs, broker control and trading justifications.
  5. Join employee transaction records with confidential order timestamps and market prices.
  6. Compare offering statements with board records, counsel assessments and known liabilities.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

For the Pump-and-dump stock promotion concern, the procedure tests source evidence behind this observation: Coordinated promotional bursts coincide with insider selling and extreme price reversals. This matters because false hype can induce investor purchases while manipulators unload inflated positions; independent corroboration is necessary before accepting any conclusion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This comparison primarily addresses Unsuitable securities recommendation, in which a sale can be improper because the recommendation does not match the customer's circumstances, not because the product itself is inherently unlawful; because the present question instead concerns Pump-and-dump stock promotion, reviewers should correlate promotional communications with trading accounts and beneficial ownership rather than apply a check designed for Unsuitable securities recommendation.

B:

This comparison primarily addresses Material nonpublic information trading, in which trading on material information not publicly available may breach insider-trading rules depending on the jurisdiction and duties involved; because the present question instead concerns Pump-and-dump stock promotion, reviewers should correlate promotional communications with trading accounts and beneficial ownership rather than apply a check designed for Material nonpublic information trading.

D:

This comparison primarily addresses Excessive-account churning, in which excessive trading for broker compensation can constitute churning when control and other relevant elements are present; because the present question instead concerns Pump-and-dump stock promotion, reviewers should correlate promotional communications with trading accounts and beneficial ownership rather than apply a check designed for Excessive-account churning.

E:

This comparison primarily addresses Broker front-running client order, in which misusing confidential customer-order knowledge for personal gain creates market-abuse and conflict risks; because the present question instead concerns Pump-and-dump stock promotion, reviewers should correlate promotional communications with trading accounts and beneficial ownership rather than apply a check designed for Broker front-running client order.

F:

This comparison primarily addresses Misleading offering prospectus, in which omission of decision-useful facts can mislead investors even where some published numbers are accurate; because the present question instead concerns Pump-and-dump stock promotion, reviewers should correlate promotional communications with trading accounts and beneficial ownership rather than apply a check designed for Misleading offering prospectus.

Question 37

The organization wants to prevent cash-sale understatement. Its risk assessment describes: The portion never entered in the till is skimmed even though a partial sale appears in the books. What targeted safeguard should it prioritize?

  1. Restrict manual price overrides and review exception reports independently.
  2. Limit key access and assign independent custodial surprise counts.
  3. Use two-person opening of donations and sequential receipt logs.
  4. Require independent approval and physical-return evidence for cash refunds.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The control directly addresses the failure point in Cash-sale understatement, since the portion never entered in the till is skimmed even though a partial sale appears in the books. A subsequent independent review could compare price lists and independent customer receipts with cash register line data to identify exceptions that bypassed the safeguard.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Cash-safe theft rather than Cash-sale understatement, because theft of cash on hand depletes a recorded fund without necessarily involving a sales transaction. Unlike the control for Cash-safe theft, the more direct design for Cash-sale understatement is to restrict manual price overrides and review exception reports independently; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

C:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Charity donation skimming rather than Cash-sale understatement, because a donation stolen before entry may leave no accounting shortage unless outside records are used. Unlike the control for Charity donation skimming, the more direct design for Cash-sale understatement is to restrict manual price overrides and review exception reports independently; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

D:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Concealment through false refunds rather than Cash-sale understatement, because a false refund creates an apparently authorized cash outflow, unlike an off-record cash receipt theft. Unlike the control for Concealment through false refunds, the more direct design for Cash-sale understatement is to restrict manual price overrides and review exception reports independently; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

Question 38

The case file describes the following: A retailer pays one annual insurance premium in advance and charges all of it to the first month's expenses. Which classification best explains the events?

  1. Accounts receivable from credit sales
  2. Accrued supplier expense
  3. Inventory cost recognition
  4. Prepaid insurance expense

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Prepaid insurance expense fits the facts because an advance payment creates an asset for future economic benefit rather than immediate expense for all periods; the distinguishing observation is that coverage extends well beyond the period carrying the entire charge. To test this interpretation, a reviewer should reconcile policy coverage dates and the prepaid-insurance amortization schedule.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Accounts receivable from credit sales would involve a different sequence from Prepaid insurance expense: a legitimate credit sale can create an asset before cash arrives when revenue criteria are met. Unlike the rejected Accounts receivable from credit sales label, the evidence concerns Prepaid insurance expense, since coverage extends well beyond the period carrying the entire charge; reviewers should reconcile policy coverage dates and the prepaid-insurance amortization schedule.

B:

Accrued supplier expense would involve a different sequence from Prepaid insurance expense: an incurred cost belongs to the period of the service even if payment and invoicing follow later. Unlike the rejected Accrued supplier expense label, the evidence concerns Prepaid insurance expense, since coverage extends well beyond the period carrying the entire charge; reviewers should reconcile policy coverage dates and the prepaid-insurance amortization schedule.

C:

Inventory cost recognition would involve a different sequence from Prepaid insurance expense: unsold goods ordinarily remain inventory assets until sold or written down as required. Unlike the rejected Inventory cost recognition label, the evidence concerns Prepaid insurance expense, since coverage extends well beyond the period carrying the entire charge; reviewers should reconcile policy coverage dates and the prepaid-insurance amortization schedule.

Question 39

The monitoring team needs an observable indicator of vendor-funded political favor. Which signal aligns most closely with the risk?

  1. The purported charge lacks an official government receipt or published tariff basis.
  2. Beneficiary ties and timing align with the award recommendation.
  3. The favored bid mirrors nonpublic scoring language before tender release.
  4. The employee's private benefits track the contractor's paid invoice volume.
  5. Inspection sign-offs conflict with independent engineering tests and financial transfers.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

This observation is a pertinent indicator of Vendor-funded political favor because indirect benefits can constitute corruption when used to induce improper contract decisions. The practical corroborating procedure is to trace third-party payment flows and ownership while comparing award rationale; the indicator by itself does not establish intent or error.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed observation fits Unapproved facilitation payment, where a privately directed payment to influence routine official action can be corrupt despite its small amount, rather than the particular mechanism in Vendor-funded political favor. Unlike the clue for Unapproved facilitation payment, the more directly related indicator for Vendor-funded political favor is this: Beneficiary ties and timing align with the award recommendation.

C:

The proposed observation fits Conflict through confidential specifications, where disclosure of privileged tender information trades an entrusted advantage for private benefit, rather than the particular mechanism in Vendor-funded political favor. Unlike the clue for Conflict through confidential specifications, the more directly related indicator for Vendor-funded political favor is this: Beneficiary ties and timing align with the award recommendation.

D:

The proposed observation fits Supplier kickback for selection, where a kickback rewards an official for steering organizational business rather than for legitimate services, rather than the particular mechanism in Vendor-funded political favor. Unlike the clue for Supplier kickback for selection, the more directly related indicator for Vendor-funded political favor is this: Beneficiary ties and timing align with the award recommendation.

E:

The proposed observation fits Bribe to overlook inspections, where a corrupt payment changes official judgment to allow nonconforming work, rather than the particular mechanism in Vendor-funded political favor. Unlike the clue for Bribe to overlook inspections, the more directly related indicator for Vendor-funded political favor is this: Beneficiary ties and timing align with the award recommendation.

Question 40

An examination of elder caregiver financial exploitation begins with this observation: Payments to caregiver-related accounts rise as the person's capacity or independence declines. Which follow-up procedure gives the most direct evidence?

  1. Check the claim using government contact channels obtained independently.
  2. Link relationship communications with payment destinations and platform authenticity.
  3. Verify asset custody, independent reserves and the reality of return generation.
  4. Review account authority, beneficiary connections and contemporaneous consent evidence.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

For the Elder caregiver financial exploitation concern, the procedure tests source evidence behind this observation: Payments to caregiver-related accounts rise as the person's capacity or independence declines. This matters because abuse of trust or access can divert assets from a vulnerable person without a public investment pitch; independent corroboration is necessary before accepting any conclusion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This comparison primarily addresses Government-agent impersonation scam, in which authority impersonation exploits fear and urgency to make victims send funds; because the present question instead concerns Elder caregiver financial exploitation, reviewers should review account authority, beneficiary connections and contemporaneous consent evidence rather than apply a check designed for Government-agent impersonation scam.

B:

This comparison primarily addresses Online romance investment grooming, in which the fraud uses emotional trust to induce transfers, often without the promised investment existing; because the present question instead concerns Elder caregiver financial exploitation, reviewers should review account authority, beneficiary connections and contemporaneous consent evidence rather than apply a check designed for Online romance investment grooming.

C:

This comparison primarily addresses Guaranteed crypto yield scam, in which unsubstantiated investment guarantees can camouflage misappropriation rather than legitimate market profits; because the present question instead concerns Elder caregiver financial exploitation, reviewers should review account authority, beneficiary connections and contemporaneous consent evidence rather than apply a check designed for Guaranteed crypto yield scam.

Certified Fraud Examiner - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes (CFE - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes) Practice Tests