ACFE CFE - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes (Certified Fraud Examiner - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes) Practice Test 2

Question 10

The case file describes the following: An account holder writes checks between two banks against funds not yet available to create an artificial temporary balance. Which classification best explains the events?

  1. Magnetic-stripe card skimming
  2. Chip-card shimming
  3. Counterfeit check creation
  4. Check-kiting float abuse

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Check-kiting float abuse fits the facts because kiting exploits settlement timing to inflate apparent funds without a genuine source of money; the distinguishing observation is that circular deposits and withdrawals depend on unsettled checks rather than real incoming funds. To test this interpretation, a reviewer should reconstruct check presentment and availability timelines across related accounts.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Magnetic-stripe card skimming would involve a different sequence from Check-kiting float abuse: skimmers capture card data at a physical payment interface for later unauthorized use. Unlike the rejected Magnetic-stripe card skimming label, the evidence concerns Check-kiting float abuse, since circular deposits and withdrawals depend on unsettled checks rather than real incoming funds; reviewers should reconstruct check presentment and availability timelines across related accounts.

B:

Chip-card shimming would involve a different sequence from Check-kiting float abuse: a shim targets information in the chip-card interface; chip transaction data alone does not necessarily permit cloning a valid chip. Unlike the rejected Chip-card shimming label, the evidence concerns Check-kiting float abuse, since circular deposits and withdrawals depend on unsettled checks rather than real incoming funds; reviewers should reconstruct check presentment and availability timelines across related accounts.

C:

Counterfeit check creation would involve a different sequence from Check-kiting float abuse: counterfeit checks are fabricated payment instruments rather than alterations of legitimate originals. Unlike the rejected Counterfeit check creation label, the evidence concerns Check-kiting float abuse, since circular deposits and withdrawals depend on unsettled checks rather than real incoming funds; reviewers should reconstruct check presentment and availability timelines across related accounts.

Question 11

For a review of broker front-running client order, which evidence-based warning sign is the most specific?

  1. Commission records show ongoing securities placement activity without appropriate registration evidence.
  2. Trades by insiders closely precede market-moving news and differ from prior patterns.
  3. Employee trades consistently precede client orders and benefit from resulting price movements.
  4. External sustainability claims disagree with underlying meter and assurance records.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

This observation is a pertinent indicator of Broker front-running client order because misusing confidential customer-order knowledge for personal gain creates market-abuse and conflict risks. The practical corroborating procedure is to join employee transaction records with confidential order timestamps and market prices; the indicator by itself does not establish intent or error.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed observation fits Unregistered brokerage solicitation, where securities-related compensation and solicitation can trigger registration obligations under relevant laws, rather than the particular mechanism in Broker front-running client order. Unlike the clue for Unregistered brokerage solicitation, the more directly related indicator for Broker front-running client order is this: Employee trades consistently precede client orders and benefit from resulting price movements.

B:

The proposed observation fits Material nonpublic information trading, where trading on material information not publicly available may breach insider-trading rules depending on the jurisdiction and duties involved, rather than the particular mechanism in Broker front-running client order. Unlike the clue for Material nonpublic information trading, the more directly related indicator for Broker front-running client order is this: Employee trades consistently precede client orders and benefit from resulting price movements.

D:

The proposed observation fits False sustainability disclosures, where nonfinancial representations can deceive securities investors when inaccurate or unsupported, rather than the particular mechanism in Broker front-running client order. Unlike the clue for False sustainability disclosures, the more directly related indicator for Broker front-running client order is this: Employee trades consistently precede client orders and benefit from resulting price movements.

Question 12

The review team observes the following: Payments and settlement records do not resemble ordinary end-to-end bank transfers. It seeks one targeted detection step and one preventive measure that address the same underlying vulnerability. Which pairing is best?

  1. Diagnostic: Reconcile sender receipts, broker obligations and final beneficiary payouts; safeguard: Maintain escalation, investigation and timely suspicious-activity reporting procedures.
  2. Diagnostic: Review linked transactions and record the rationale for a report under applicable law; safeguard: Monitor aggregated stored-value activity and apply appropriate identification limits.
  3. Diagnostic: Reconcile sender receipts, broker obligations and final beneficiary payouts; safeguard: Apply licensing and risk controls to remittance networks based on local requirements.
  4. Diagnostic: Follow control and ownership links to natural persons using reliable independent evidence; safeguard: Apply licensing and risk controls to remittance networks based on local requirements.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The test addresses Alternative remittance settlement by targeting this observation: Payments and settlement records do not resemble ordinary end-to-end bank transfers. The accompanying safeguard—apply licensing and risk controls to remittance networks based on local requirements—counters the same opportunity, so both checking and prevention concern one cause.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The diagnostic correctly examines Alternative remittance settlement by having reviewers reconcile sender receipts, broker obligations and final beneficiary payouts, but the safeguard is for Suspicious-activity reporting decision. That prevention step responds to a different mechanism: A SAR or STR is a suspicion-based regulatory tool; examiners need not prove criminal guilt before considering it.

B:

The evidence test relates to Suspicious-activity reporting decision, whereas the proposed safeguard protects against Stored-value card conversion; neither directly resolves Alternative remittance settlement. Unlike the Suspicious-activity reporting decision test and Stored-value card conversion safeguard, the investigation of Alternative remittance settlement requires reviewers to reconcile sender receipts, broker obligations and final beneficiary payouts, followed by assessment of the matching control point.

D:

The proposed safeguard is relevant to Alternative remittance settlement, but the diagnostic tests Opaque beneficial-ownership layers rather than the identified anomaly. That test is aimed at records involving nominal directors cannot explain operations and ownership trails end in opaque nominees; the specified case instead calls for reviewers to reconcile sender receipts, broker obligations and final beneficiary payouts.

Question 13

Reviewers flag a possible alternative remittance settlement issue. Their preliminary finding is: Payments and settlement records do not resemble ordinary end-to-end bank transfers. Which test would best confirm or refute the concern?

  1. Reconcile sender receipts, broker obligations and final beneficiary payouts.
  2. Follow control and ownership links to natural persons using reliable independent evidence.
  3. Link funding methods, card serials and redemption beneficiaries.
  4. Review linked transactions and record the rationale for a report under applicable law.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

For the Alternative remittance settlement concern, the procedure tests source evidence behind this observation: Payments and settlement records do not resemble ordinary end-to-end bank transfers. This matters because value transfer can occur through broker-ledgers and net settlements, whether legitimate or abused; independent corroboration is necessary before accepting any conclusion.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This comparison primarily addresses Opaque beneficial-ownership layers, in which legal-entity layers can conceal who controls funds and defeat superficial name-only screening; because the present question instead concerns Alternative remittance settlement, reviewers should reconcile sender receipts, broker obligations and final beneficiary payouts rather than apply a check designed for Opaque beneficial-ownership layers.

C:

This comparison primarily addresses Stored-value card conversion, in which stored-value instruments can move purchasing power while distancing it from original cash; because the present question instead concerns Alternative remittance settlement, reviewers should reconcile sender receipts, broker obligations and final beneficiary payouts rather than apply a check designed for Stored-value card conversion.

D:

This comparison primarily addresses Suspicious-activity reporting decision, in which a SAR or STR is a suspicion-based regulatory tool; examiners need not prove criminal guilt before considering it; because the present question instead concerns Alternative remittance settlement, reviewers should reconcile sender receipts, broker obligations and final beneficiary payouts rather than apply a check designed for Suspicious-activity reporting decision.

Question 14

The team is assessing a potential privileged bulk data export discrepancy. Initial observation: Privileged queries and large exports lack authorized change tickets. Which verification step is most informative?

  1. Review vendor access entitlements, download activity and contract work scope.
  2. Join database audit trails with approved work orders and outbound data transfers.
  3. Correlate tour permissions, camera monitoring and design-document custody.
  4. Correlate identity-provider login records, phishing artifacts and file access.
  5. Correlate repository clone logs with endpoint uploads and exit dates.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

For the Privileged bulk data export concern, the procedure tests source evidence behind this observation: Privileged queries and large exports lack authorized change tickets. This matters because excess technical privilege can permit insider misappropriation of valuable information; independent corroboration is necessary before accepting any conclusion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This comparison primarily addresses Supplier-access data theft, in which compromised or misused partner access can become a route for proprietary-data loss; because the present question instead concerns Privileged bulk data export, reviewers should join database audit trails with approved work orders and outbound data transfers rather than apply a check designed for Supplier-access data theft.

C:

This comparison primarily addresses Printed blueprint removal, in which optical capture can remove trade secrets without any network download event; because the present question instead concerns Privileged bulk data export, reviewers should join database audit trails with approved work orders and outbound data transfers rather than apply a check designed for Printed blueprint removal.

D:

This comparison primarily addresses Spear-phishing product drawings, in which deceptive credential collection enables unauthorized access to proprietary engineering data; because the present question instead concerns Privileged bulk data export, reviewers should join database audit trails with approved work orders and outbound data transfers rather than apply a check designed for Spear-phishing product drawings.

E:

This comparison primarily addresses Source-code repository exfiltration, in which confidential software is removed through insider access, not obtained from public sources; because the present question instead concerns Privileged bulk data export, reviewers should join database audit trails with approved work orders and outbound data transfers rather than apply a check designed for Source-code repository exfiltration.

Question 15

A reviewer wants to distinguish fictitious outbound shipment from adjacent risk patterns. Which observation is the most diagnostic indicator?

  1. Dispatch scans lack matching customer orders or destination acknowledgments.
  2. Repeated shortages affect items to which the custodian has exclusive access.
  3. Disposal lists contain items with normal working condition or resale value.
  4. Equipment checkout history shows extended absence without approved projects.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

This observation is a pertinent indicator of Fictitious outbound shipment because false shipment records disguise a physical theft as normal logistics activity. The practical corroborating procedure is to match shipment scans and carrier proof of delivery to authorized sales or transfers; the indicator by itself does not establish intent or error.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The proposed observation fits Warehouse stock diversion, where the employee converts recorded merchandise to private use by exploiting physical access, rather than the particular mechanism in Fictitious outbound shipment. Unlike the clue for Warehouse stock diversion, the more directly related indicator for Fictitious outbound shipment is this: Dispatch scans lack matching customer orders or destination acknowledgments.

C:

The proposed observation fits False scrap classification, where misclassification makes valuable inventory appear worthless before it leaves the site, rather than the particular mechanism in Fictitious outbound shipment. Unlike the clue for False scrap classification, the more directly related indicator for Fictitious outbound shipment is this: Dispatch scans lack matching customer orders or destination acknowledgments.

D:

The proposed observation fits Unauthorized equipment personal use, where temporary unauthorized use is misuse of a noncash asset even where permanent theft is unproven, rather than the particular mechanism in Fictitious outbound shipment. Unlike the clue for Unauthorized equipment personal use, the more directly related indicator for Fictitious outbound shipment is this: Dispatch scans lack matching customer orders or destination acknowledgments.

Question 16

The risk team has identified the following fictitious disaster relief business exposure: Crisis support can be abused through fictitious claimants and fabricated losses. Which proposed prevention step is most effective?

  1. Cross-check emergency aid eligibility without eliminating rapid legitimate access.
  2. Publish objective criteria and require independent conflict-reviewed award decisions.
  3. Enforce unique cost allocation records and duplicate-charge analytics.
  4. Release grant tranches against independently verified deliverables.
  5. Periodically revalidate eligibility and segregate payment setup from approval.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The control directly addresses the failure point in Fictitious disaster relief business, since crisis support can be abused through fictitious claimants and fabricated losses. A subsequent independent review could verify existence and pre-disaster activity using independent authoritative records to identify exceptions that bypassed the safeguard.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Politically directed benefit awards rather than Fictitious disaster relief business, because misuse of discretionary public funds can favor connected parties over eligible beneficiaries. Unlike the control for Politically directed benefit awards, the more direct design for Fictitious disaster relief business is to cross-check emergency aid eligibility without eliminating rapid legitimate access; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

C:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Double-charged public grant costs rather than Fictitious disaster relief business, because a real cost becomes fraudulent when recovered more than once from restricted funding sources. Unlike the control for Double-charged public grant costs, the more direct design for Fictitious disaster relief business is to cross-check emergency aid eligibility without eliminating rapid legitimate access; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

D:

This safeguard is directed primarily at False government grant deliverables rather than Fictitious disaster relief business, because a grant recipient obtains public funds by falsely certifying eligible performance. Unlike the control for False government grant deliverables, the more direct design for Fictitious disaster relief business is to cross-check emergency aid eligibility without eliminating rapid legitimate access; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

E:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Ghost public-assistance beneficiaries rather than Fictitious disaster relief business, because public funds continue flowing to people who should not receive benefits. Unlike the control for Ghost public-assistance beneficiaries, the more direct design for Fictitious disaster relief business is to cross-check emergency aid eligibility without eliminating rapid legitimate access; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

Question 17

Two separate review files raise different issues. File A: An offender uses stolen funding credentials to load stored-value cards and quickly redeems the balances. File B: An attacker compromises a supplier mailbox and sends changed bank details just before an invoice payment. Which pairing accurately classifies both files?

  1. File A: Prepaid card load-and-drain; File B: Fraudulent merchant QR redirect.
  2. File A: Unauthorized ACH debit; File B: Business email payment diversion.
  3. File A: Business email payment diversion; File B: Prepaid card load-and-drain.
  4. File A: Prepaid card load-and-drain; File B: Business email payment diversion.
  5. File A: Business email payment diversion; File B: Unauthorized ACH debit.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

File A is Prepaid card load-and-drain because prepaid value can be used to convert unauthorized payments into quickly transferable balances, while File B is Business email payment diversion because the payment is authorized for a real invoice but settlement instructions are fraudulently replaced. The evidence chains differ: for File A, reviewers should link card funding source, load time, device identity and redemption trail; for File B, they should verify beneficiary changes independently and inspect message headers and login records.

Incorrect Answers

A:

File B is misidentified as Fraudulent merchant QR redirect instead of Business email payment diversion. With the proposed pairing Prepaid card load-and-drain / Fraudulent merchant QR redirect, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that rapid loads and redemptions share devices and beneficiaries across cards, whereas File B shows that authentic-looking emails originate from an altered thread and route funds to a new account. For these Prepaid card load-and-drain and Business email payment diversion files, choosing the pair Prepaid card load-and-drain / Fraudulent merchant QR redirect would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

B:

File A is misidentified as Unauthorized ACH debit instead of Prepaid card load-and-drain. With the proposed pairing Unauthorized ACH debit / Business email payment diversion, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that rapid loads and redemptions share devices and beneficiaries across cards, whereas File B shows that authentic-looking emails originate from an altered thread and route funds to a new account. For these Prepaid card load-and-drain and Business email payment diversion files, choosing the pair Unauthorized ACH debit / Business email payment diversion would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

C:

File A is misidentified as Business email payment diversion instead of Prepaid card load-and-drain; File B is misidentified as Prepaid card load-and-drain instead of Business email payment diversion. With the proposed pairing Business email payment diversion / Prepaid card load-and-drain, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that rapid loads and redemptions share devices and beneficiaries across cards, whereas File B shows that authentic-looking emails originate from an altered thread and route funds to a new account. For these Prepaid card load-and-drain and Business email payment diversion files, choosing the pair Business email payment diversion / Prepaid card load-and-drain would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

E:

File A is misidentified as Business email payment diversion instead of Prepaid card load-and-drain; File B is misidentified as Unauthorized ACH debit instead of Business email payment diversion. With the proposed pairing Business email payment diversion / Unauthorized ACH debit, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that rapid loads and redemptions share devices and beneficiaries across cards, whereas File B shows that authentic-looking emails originate from an altered thread and route funds to a new account. For these Prepaid card load-and-drain and Business email payment diversion files, choosing the pair Business email payment diversion / Unauthorized ACH debit would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

Question 18

Reviewers flag a possible double-charged public grant costs issue. Their preliminary finding is: Identical time entries and payroll identifiers appear in multiple reimbursement requests. Which test would best confirm or refute the concern?

  1. Cross-match beneficiary status with authorized registries and payment destinations.
  2. Reconcile employee time allocation and invoice support across grants.
  3. Compare engineering test results, supplier records and acceptance approvals.
  4. Compare application scoring and decision records with declared program requirements.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

For the Double-charged public grant costs concern, the procedure tests source evidence behind this observation: Identical time entries and payroll identifiers appear in multiple reimbursement requests. This matters because a real cost becomes fraudulent when recovered more than once from restricted funding sources; independent corroboration is necessary before accepting any conclusion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This comparison primarily addresses Ghost public-assistance beneficiaries, in which public funds continue flowing to people who should not receive benefits; because the present question instead concerns Double-charged public grant costs, reviewers should reconcile employee time allocation and invoice support across grants rather than apply a check designed for Ghost public-assistance beneficiaries.

C:

This comparison primarily addresses Substandard public works certification, in which taxpayer money pays for specifications that were not actually met; because the present question instead concerns Double-charged public grant costs, reviewers should reconcile employee time allocation and invoice support across grants rather than apply a check designed for Substandard public works certification.

D:

This comparison primarily addresses Politically directed benefit awards, in which misuse of discretionary public funds can favor connected parties over eligible beneficiaries; because the present question instead concerns Double-charged public grant costs, reviewers should reconcile employee time allocation and invoice support across grants rather than apply a check designed for Politically directed benefit awards.

Question 19

A process owner is assessing safeguards for complementary cover bidding. The mechanism is: Cover bids create an illusion of competition while protecting a preselected winner. Which control addresses it most directly?

  1. Monitor recurring bid participation and apply competition compliance controls.
  2. Require conflict declarations and investigate shared bid-document fingerprints.
  3. Require independently approved sole-source justifications with retrospective review.
  4. Monitor unexplained participation gaps and report credible collusion indicators.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The control directly addresses the failure point in Complementary cover bidding, since cover bids create an illusion of competition while protecting a preselected winner. A subsequent independent review could compare bid preparation artifacts, related owners and independent market estimates to identify exceptions that bypassed the safeguard.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Bid rotation agreement rather than Complementary cover bidding, because bid rotation is an agreement to allocate wins rather than genuine independent competition. Unlike the control for Bid rotation agreement, the more direct design for Complementary cover bidding is to require conflict declarations and investigate shared bid-document fingerprints; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

C:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Artificial urgency sole-source award rather than Complementary cover bidding, because false urgency defeats normal competitive sourcing under an unjustified exception. Unlike the control for Artificial urgency sole-source award, the more direct design for Complementary cover bidding is to require conflict declarations and investigate shared bid-document fingerprints; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

D:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Bid suppression agreement rather than Complementary cover bidding, because suppressing bids reduces competition by preventing otherwise viable offers. Unlike the control for Bid suppression agreement, the more direct design for Complementary cover bidding is to require conflict declarations and investigate shared bid-document fingerprints; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

Question 20

The case file describes the following: A business receives proceeds from a new bank loan and later repays part of the principal. Which classification best explains the events?

  1. Gross-profit calculation
  2. Investing cash-flow classification
  3. Financing cash-flow classification
  4. Equity reconciliation

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Financing cash-flow classification fits the facts because financing activities describe changes in funding from lenders and owners; classifications of interest can vary by accounting framework; the distinguishing observation is that loan agreements and bank movements show changes in borrowed capital. To test this interpretation, a reviewer should reconcile borrowing and principal-repayment transactions to financing cash flows.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Gross-profit calculation would involve a different sequence from Financing cash-flow classification: gross profit isolates direct goods margin rather than the final earnings after all operating and other costs. Unlike the rejected Gross-profit calculation label, the evidence concerns Financing cash-flow classification, since loan agreements and bank movements show changes in borrowed capital; reviewers should reconcile borrowing and principal-repayment transactions to financing cash flows.

B:

Investing cash-flow classification would involve a different sequence from Financing cash-flow classification: buying plant equipment is generally an investing cash outflow, not a routine operating payment. Unlike the rejected Investing cash-flow classification label, the evidence concerns Financing cash-flow classification, since loan agreements and bank movements show changes in borrowed capital; reviewers should reconcile borrowing and principal-repayment transactions to financing cash flows.

D:

Equity reconciliation would involve a different sequence from Financing cash-flow classification: equity is the residual interest in assets after deducting liabilities, not a bank balance or revenue figure. Unlike the rejected Equity reconciliation label, the evidence concerns Financing cash-flow classification, since loan agreements and bank movements show changes in borrowed capital; reviewers should reconcile borrowing and principal-repayment transactions to financing cash flows.

Certified Fraud Examiner - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes (CFE - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes) Practice Tests