AAPC CPC (Certified Professional Coder) Practice Test 3

Question 20

The thick-walled chamber ejects blood through the aortic valve to systemic circulation. What anatomical term correctly names this site?

  1. Left ventricle
  2. Left atrium
  3. Right atrium
  4. Interventricular septum

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Systemic arterial ejection originates from the left ventricle. Its thicker muscle reflects the pressure demands of the systemic circulation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The left upper chamber receives blood returning from the lungs and passes it to the left ventricle across the mitral valve; what was actually documented is ejecting blood into the aorta, not the different evidence of receiving oxygenated pulmonary venous return.

C:

This right-sided receiving chamber accepts the superior and inferior vena cava; it is not the ventricle that ejects blood to the pulmonary artery; the reported work involves ejecting blood into the aorta and does not establish receiving systemic venous return.

D:

This alternative, Interventricular septum, concerns the muscular dividing wall between the two ventricular chambers, not an atrium or ventricle itself; the alternative is not supported by the documented ejecting blood into the aorta.

Question 21

Claims knowingly seek government payment on materially false information. Which reporting principle should guide the audit?

  1. Compliance self-audit
  2. Medical necessity review
  3. Unbundling
  4. False Claims Act exposure

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Liability can arise for knowingly submitting or causing false claims. An ordinary corrected clerical mistake is not the same as knowing misrepresentation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Internal review is designed to detect patterns and correct deficiencies before they persist; it is different from automatically denying a claim or prospectively obtaining consent; the operative or visit note documents knowingly false government claim instead of scheduled internal review of coded services.

B:

Selecting Medical necessity review would require an assessment of clinical indications for billed work rather than deliberate overcoding, unbundling, or a full internal audit; the actual document states knowingly false government claim, which distinguishes the correct choice.

C:

Fragmenting integral parts of a service can result in improper payment; legitimate separately reportable work needs distinct documentation and applicable code guidance; separately billing included procedural components is not recorded; the evidence points to knowingly false government claim.

Question 22

The physician documents type 2 diabetes and chronic kidney disease as coexisting conditions. How should the clinician’s documentation be interpreted for coding?

  1. Diabetes due to another condition
  2. Gestational diabetes classification
  3. Type 2 diabetes without complication
  4. Type 2 diabetes with CKD

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

ICD-10-CM presumes a relationship for conditions linked by 'with' in the Alphabetic Index unless documentation clearly says otherwise. Stage information must still be supplied by an additional CKD code when instructed.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Diabetes caused by another underlying condition requires the applicable etiologic coding sequence and any required additional codes; it is not simply interchangeable with type 2 diabetes; the reported work involves type 2 diabetes linked with chronic kidney disease and does not establish diabetes attributed to an underlying disorder.

B:

Gestational diabetes classification involves a documented carbohydrate-intolerance disorder first identified during pregnancy rather than the specific nonpregnant diabetes coding principle being tested; the note describes type 2 diabetes linked with chronic kidney disease instead, changing the applicable classification.

C:

Uncomplicated diabetes belongs in the uncomplicated category rather than an assumed neuropathy, renal disorder, or hyperglycemic crisis; never invent a complication not supported by the record; what was actually documented is type 2 diabetes linked with chronic kidney disease, not the different evidence of diabetes with no documented complication.

Question 23

Inversion trauma produces a confirmed sprain of right ankle ligaments without fracture. What classification matches the clinical record?

  1. Dislocation of the shoulder
  2. Finger tendon laceration
  3. Right ankle sprain
  4. Concussion without documented loss of consciousness

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Sprain describes ligament damage. Report the documented injured structure, laterality, and encounter phase rather than coding a muscle strain or bone break.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The required element for Dislocation of the shoulder is displacement of the shoulder joint’s normal articular relationship, not a wrist fracture, ankle sprain, concussion, or tendon cut; what is described is injury to right ankle ligament, without evidence for the alternative feature.

B:

A tendon laceration injures the force-transmitting cord of a finger; the wound alone or collateral ligament injury does not fully describe the functional damage; the reported work involves injury to right ankle ligament and does not establish traumatic transection of finger tendon.

D:

Concussion is a traumatic brain injury; documentation of loss-of-consciousness status affects code specificity; general scalp contusion should not replace a diagnosed concussion; the reported work involves injury to right ankle ligament and does not establish concussion with no recorded loss of consciousness.

Question 24

A claim for a paired-body-site item specifies the right side of the patient. Which supply or modifier designation applies?

  1. Left-side modifier LT
  2. Anatomic finger and toe modifiers
  3. Modifier E2 for the lower-left eyelid
  4. Right-side modifier RT

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

RT marks the right anatomic side where recognized by the code and payer. It is different from billing a bilateral procedure without a side distinction.

Incorrect Answers

A:

LT identifies the left anatomic side where appropriate; it does not document a right-sided or bilateral service; the chart records right-sided supplied item or service rather than left-sided supplied item or service.

B:

HCPCS digit modifiers can specify a particular finger or toe; accurate digit selection matters when multiple distinct digits are treated; the reported work involves right-sided supplied item or service and does not establish exact finger or toe identification.

C:

Selecting Modifier E2 for the lower-left eyelid would require a site specifically documented as the lower lid of the left eye, not an upper-left lid or simple right/left body-side designation; the actual document states right-sided supplied item or service, which distinguishes the correct choice.

Question 25

Two uncomplicated lacerations in the same repair family and eligible body-area grouping are closed during one visit. Which choice fits the operative site and technique described?

  1. Separate repair complexity categories
  2. Adjacent lesion repair in a different anatomic grouping
  3. Excised lesion diameter calculation
  4. Same-category repair length aggregation

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Eligible repairs are grouped by complexity and anatomical categories to determine the total reportable length. Summing unrelated complexity families together would distort coding.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Repairs of different complexities are categorized independently according to applicable rules; they are not merged into one total-length bucket solely because they occurred together; what was actually documented is total lengths within same repair category and site group, not the different evidence of different closure complexities requiring separate grouping.

B:

Adjacent lesion repair in a different anatomic grouping involves a repair occurring in a different CPT anatomic grouping with separate measurement of its closure; the note describes total lengths within same repair category and site group instead, changing the applicable classification.

C:

Cutaneous excision measurements use excised diameter rather than defect closure length; document site and margin dimensions before using an applicable size range; the operative or visit note documents total lengths within same repair category and site group instead of lesion width with excision margins included.

Question 26

The medial band of plantar fascia is divided to relieve refractory plantar fasciitis. Which procedure name fits the documented anatomical target and method?

  1. Ankle joint arthrodesis
  2. Plantar fascia release
  3. Hallux valgus correction with osteotomy
  4. Hammertoe correction

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Fascia release treats plantar heel pain by cutting the diseased fascial band. It is separate from Achilles tendon repair and bony realignment.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Ankle joint arthrodesis reflects fusion of the ankle joint rather than Achilles, plantar fascia, toe-hammer, or hallux-valgus corrective work, whereas the clinical note identifies therapeutic division of plantar fascia; the different evidence changes the classification.

C:

Osteotomy-based bunion correction changes bony alignment, not merely soft-tissue shaving; current code choice depends on the precise first-ray work performed; the patient record supports therapeutic division of plantar fascia rather than the alternative finding of first metatarsal osteotomy for hallux valgus.

D:

Hammertoe surgery addresses fixed toe deformity, often by arthroplasty or fusion of a toe joint; it is not first-metatarsal bunion realignment; the chart records therapeutic division of plantar fascia rather than corrective operation on flexed lesser toe.

Question 27

A surgeon opens the pericardium to allow recurrent effusion to drain into a neighboring space. Which surgical service corresponds to the documented operation?

  1. Image-guided pericardial needle biopsy
  2. Endomyocardial biopsy
  3. Pericardial window creation
  4. Pericardiectomy

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A window creates surgical drainage of the pericardial sac. It differs from isolated needle aspiration and from extensive pericardial stripping.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Image-guided pericardial needle biopsy refers to tissue sampling specifically from the pericardium rather than drainage, surgical removal of pericardium, or myocardial biopsy, but the documented clinical work is operative fenestration of pericardial sac; choosing it would misclassify the documented encounter.

B:

Endomyocardial biopsy samples heart muscle through catheter instrumentation; it does not simply aspirate pericardial fluid or open the pericardial sac; the chart records operative fenestration of pericardial sac rather than catheter-guided acquisition of heart muscle samples.

D:

Pericardiectomy removes pericardial tissue to relieve constriction; A small drainage window is a more limited service with a different purpose; the controlling finding is operative fenestration of pericardial sac, which is distinct from surgical removal of substantial pericardial tissue.

Question 28

A fascial defect at the umbilicus is closed to prevent protrusion of abdominal contents. Which listed service reflects the actual surgical technique?

  1. Umbilical hernia repair
  2. Open inguinal hernia repair
  3. Laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair
  4. Laparoscopic ventral hernia repair

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Umbilical hernia is defined by the location at the navel. Documentation of size and whether the case is initial or recurrent matters under current abdominal hernia coding frameworks.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Open inguinal repair treats a groin defect by an anterior approach; side, age, recurrence, and operative findings govern classification rather than equating it with ventral hernia; the distinction is the record’s closure of hernia at umbilical ring versus the alternative of direct open repair of groin hernia.

C:

The Laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair choice presumes minimally invasive repair of a groin hernia rather than open inguinal, umbilical, or ventral repair; the record instead establishes closure of hernia at umbilical ring, making that alternative an inaccurate description.

D:

Minimally invasive ventral repair uses intraperitoneal or preperitoneal access; current CPT choices require more than assuming the approach alone selects a unique code; to select this alternative the report would need minimally invasive reinforcement of abdominal wall defect, whereas it identifies closure of hernia at umbilical ring.

Question 29

Obstructing prostatic tissue is shaved away endoscopically to relieve urinary outflow obstruction. Which procedure name fits the documented anatomical target and method?

  1. Transrectal prostate needle biopsy
  2. Prostatic cryoablation
  3. Laser vaporization of prostate
  4. Transurethral prostate resection

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

TURP removes tissue from inside the gland through the urethra. It is not complete removal of the prostate for cancer.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Prostate core biopsy samples gland tissue for histologic diagnosis; use code rules for biopsy technique and image guidance, rather than confusing it with surgical removal; what was actually documented is transurethral shaving of prostatic obstructing tissue, not the different evidence of needle cores taken from prostate through rectum.

B:

In Prostatic cryoablation, the work centers on intentional freezing of prostate tissue rather than needle biopsy, transurethral resection, vaporization, or radical excision; instead, the report records transurethral shaving of prostatic obstructing tissue, which supports a different classification.

C:

Laser ablation reduces prostate bulk by energy rather than standard tissue resection; the actual laser modality determines available codes; this clinical evidence establishes transurethral shaving of prostatic obstructing tissue, not endoscopic laser destruction of benign prostate tissue.

Question 30

Laser spots are applied to retinal tissue to treat a retinal vascular or tear condition. What procedure can be distinguished from the alternatives using these facts?

  1. Retinal photocoagulation
  2. Intravitreal injection
  3. Retinal cryopexy of a tear
  4. Scleral buckle repair

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Retinal laser therapy produces controlled burns to selected retina. It differs from externally buckling sclera or injecting medication into vitreous cavity.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Intravitreal administration delivers medication into the posterior segment; it does not by itself establish a vitrectomy or retinal photocoagulation; the operative or visit note documents laser treatment applied to retinal tissue instead of therapeutic drug injected into vitreous cavity.

C:

Although Retinal cryopexy of a tear may sound adjacent, it denotes transscleral freezing to seal a retinal tear rather than laser photocoagulation, intraocular injection, buckle insertion, or vitrectomy; this record documents laser treatment applied to retinal tissue, which is distinct from that alternative.

D:

Scleral buckling changes eye-wall contour to relieve vitreoretinal traction; it is not the same as entering the vitreous with a vitrector; this clinical evidence establishes laser treatment applied to retinal tissue, not external encircling or segmental support of retina.

Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Practice Tests