AAPC CPC (Certified Professional Coder) Practice Test 1

Question 1

Laboratory and clinical documentation confirm blood in urine. Which term most precisely names the finding?

  1. Polyuria
  2. Oliguria
  3. Dysuria
  4. Hematuria

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Hem- refers to blood and -uria refers to urine. This is a urinary finding that must not be confused with urine volume changes or excretion of protein.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Poly- in this context indicates excessive urine volume; frequent small voids are not the same finding unless the total volume is also increased; to select this alternative the report would need excessive total urine production, whereas it identifies blood present in urine.

B:

Olig- means few or scant; the finding concerns quantity of urine produced, not urine color, protein concentration, or voiding frequency alone; the patient record supports blood present in urine rather than the alternative finding of low total urine output.

C:

Selecting Dysuria would require pain or burning during the act of urination; the actual document states blood present in urine, which distinguishes the correct choice.

Question 2

An organ releases oocytes and produces ovarian hormones. Which structure has the stated characteristics?

  1. Ovary
  2. Myometrium
  3. Endometrium
  4. Cervix

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The ovary is the female gonad, distinct from the uterine tube that receives the oocyte. It is not the site of fetal gestation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The myometrium is the contractile layer of the uterus; it is anatomically deeper than the endometrial cavity lining; the documented detail of female gonadal function prevents classifying it as muscular wall of uterus.

C:

The endometrium is the mucosal lining that changes across the menstrual cycle; it differs from the muscular myometrium; the distinction is the record’s female gonadal function versus the alternative of inner uterine mucosal lining.

D:

Cervix reflects the lower narrow segment of the uterus opening into the vagina rather than a uterine layer, tube, or ovary, whereas the clinical note identifies female gonadal function; the different evidence changes the classification.

Question 3

A claim contains two codes that are generally not separately payable together on the same date. Which regulatory concept is implicated?

  1. Medically Unlikely Edit
  2. NCCI modifier indicator one
  3. Claim frequency restriction
  4. Procedure-to-procedure edit

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A PTP edit identifies a bundled code pair with a modifier indicator governing whether an exception is possible. Appending a modifier without distinct clinical circumstances is not valid.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An MUE evaluates units of service for a specific code, subject to adjudication rules; it does not establish a paired-procedure bundle; the documented detail of same-day code-pair bundling conflict prevents classifying it as unusually high units for one code.

B:

Indicator 1 means a properly supported NCCI-associated modifier may permit separate reporting; it is not blanket authorization to unbundle integral work; the operative or visit note documents same-day code-pair bundling conflict instead of modifier-eligible code pair and documented distinction.

C:

Claim frequency restriction is supported by documentation of a payer policy on how often a service may be submitted, not an NCCI code-pair edit or unit-based MUE; here the decisive finding is same-day code-pair bundling conflict; the defining work for this distractor is absent.

Question 4

The treating clinician explicitly documents that a pregnant patient’s hand injury does not affect pregnancy and that pregnancy is incidental to this encounter. Which ICD-10-CM convention is supported?

  1. Gestational week assignment
  2. Postpartum period
  3. Pregnancy incidental
  4. Trimester specificity

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A provider's documentation that pregnancy is incidental supports the appropriate incidental pregnancy code rather than automatically assigning a Chapter 15 complication.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Gestational week assignment refers to use of documented weeks of gestation to support an additional gestational-week code when applicable, but the documented clinical work is pregnancy explicitly unrelated to current care; choosing it would misclassify the documented encounter.

B:

Chapter 15 includes postpartum-specific coding where applicable; A postpartum condition is not automatically categorized as an antepartum complication; to select this alternative the report would need maternal condition arising in puerperium, whereas it identifies pregnancy explicitly unrelated to current care.

D:

Obstetric coding frequently distinguishes trimester, which should be assigned using gestational timing documented in the record; week-specific additional codes may be required; the distinction is the record’s pregnancy explicitly unrelated to current care versus the alternative of trimester-specific pregnancy diagnosis.

Question 5

An asymptomatic adult undergoes colorectal screening without bleeding or other diagnostic indications. Which diagnosis category best fits these findings?

  1. Cough unspecified R05.9
  2. Screening for colorectal cancer Z12.11
  3. Dizziness and giddiness R42
  4. Encounter for immunization Z23

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Z12.11 identifies screening for malignant neoplasm of colon. Testing caused by symptoms or an existing lesion is a diagnostic rather than pure screening encounter.

Incorrect Answers

A:

R05.9 represents an unspecified cough symptom; do not code a suspected infection as confirmed in the outpatient setting; the reported work involves screening examination in asymptomatic person and does not establish cough without diagnosed etiology.

C:

R42 is a symptom code rather than a confirmed disorder such as labyrinthitis; additional details may permit a more specific classification; what was actually documented is screening examination in asymptomatic person, not the different evidence of dizziness without underlying confirmed condition.

D:

The Encounter for immunization Z23 choice presumes a visit scheduled to administer a vaccine instead of the stated screening or symptomatic presentation; the record instead establishes screening examination in asymptomatic person, making that alternative an inaccurate description.

Question 6

A procedure or supply needs exact digit identification rather than only left or right. Which Level II code or modifier concept is relevant?

  1. Left-side modifier LT
  2. Bilateral modifier 50
  3. Modifier E2 for the lower-left eyelid
  4. Anatomic finger and toe modifiers

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

HCPCS digit modifiers can specify a particular finger or toe. Accurate digit selection matters when multiple distinct digits are treated.

Incorrect Answers

A:

LT identifies the left anatomic side where appropriate; it does not document a right-sided or bilateral service; to select this alternative the report would need left-sided supplied item or service, whereas it identifies exact finger or toe identification.

B:

Modifier 50 conveys a bilateral procedure where CPT and payer rules permit; it is not universally applicable to every code with two anatomic sides; the documented detail of exact finger or toe identification prevents classifying it as eligible procedure completed on both sides.

C:

Modifier E2 for the lower-left eyelid involves a site specifically documented as the lower lid of the left eye, not an upper-left lid or simple right/left body-side designation; the note describes exact finger or toe identification instead, changing the applicable classification.

Question 7

An acutely infected sacrococcygeal pit is opened to release pus without excising the entire sinus tract. What intervention should be recognized from this operative detail?

  1. Postoperative sinus tract exploration
  2. Pilonidal abscess drainage
  3. Extensive pilonidal tract excision
  4. Pilonidal excision with flap reconstruction

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Abscess drainage treats the acute collection but leaves definitive sinus-tract excision for another indicated procedure. It is not equivalent to extensive pilonidal surgery.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A postoperative sinus tract differs from a new pilonidal pit or a fresh uncomplicated skin abscess; the etiology and procedure determine whether a tract-directed service applies; what was actually documented is acute pilonidal collection opened for drainage, not the different evidence of exploration of established postoperative draining tract.

C:

Complicated pilonidal surgery is supported by the extensive disease and operative work, not solely by the length of surgery; it differs from limited tract excision; to select this alternative the report would need extensive branching pilonidal sinus surgery, whereas it identifies acute pilonidal collection opened for drainage.

D:

Pilonidal excision with flap reconstruction is supported by documentation of excision of a complex pilonidal tract followed by a documented local flap reconstruction; here the decisive finding is acute pilonidal collection opened for drainage; the defining work for this distractor is absent.

Question 8

Frayed articular cartilage is smoothed with a shaver without restoration of a meniscus. Which procedure best captures the surgeon’s documented action?

  1. Arthroscopic anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction
  2. Diagnostic knee arthroscopy
  3. Arthroscopic meniscus repair
  4. Arthroscopic chondroplasty

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Chondroplasty addresses articular cartilage, not torn meniscus. NCCI bundling and whether work occurs in a separate compartment require careful review.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Although Arthroscopic anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction may sound adjacent, it denotes placement of a graft to reconstruct the knee ACL rather than diagnostic inspection, cartilage trimming, or meniscal surgery; this record documents debridement or smoothing of joint cartilage, which is distinct from that alternative.

B:

Diagnostic arthroscopy visualizes internal structures; it may be integral to a therapeutic arthroscopic operation performed in the same session and should not automatically be charged separately; to select this alternative the report would need inspection-only endoscopic knee evaluation, whereas it identifies debridement or smoothing of joint cartilage.

C:

Meniscal repair seeks healing of native fibrocartilage, unlike resection of the tear; separate compartments and concomitant work can affect reporting; the controlling finding is debridement or smoothing of joint cartilage, which is distinct from suture stabilization of meniscal tear.

Question 9

Obstructive plaque is removed from the carotid artery through direct surgical exposure. What procedure is most consistent with the stated approach and work?

  1. Open aneurysm repair
  2. Arterial embolectomy
  3. Endovascular repair of abdominal aortic aneurysm
  4. Carotid endarterectomy

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Endarterectomy surgically removes intimal atheroma to restore flow. Its method differs from luminal dilation or a bypass around the diseased segment.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Open aneurysm correction treats the dilated aortic segment under direct exposure, unlike endovascular stent-graft placement through remote vascular access; the documented detail of open plaque extraction from carotid wall prevents classifying it as direct open reconstruction of aneurysmal artery.

B:

Embolectomy removes an obstructing embolus; it is not a planned bypass or removal of chronic atherosclerotic plaque from the arterial wall; the patient record supports open plaque extraction from carotid wall rather than the alternative finding of extraction of acute intraluminal arterial embolus.

C:

Endovascular repair of abdominal aortic aneurysm reflects percutaneous stent-graft exclusion of an aortic aneurysm rather than open graft replacement or bypass, whereas the clinical note identifies open plaque extraction from carotid wall; the different evidence changes the classification.

Question 10

A malfunctioning feeding tube is replaced through a mature existing stomach tract. Which coded-service concept best represents the surgery actually performed?

  1. Partial gastrectomy
  2. Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy placement
  3. Surgical jejunostomy tube placement
  4. Established gastrostomy tube exchange

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Exchange uses established access rather than creating a new gastrostomy. Whether endoscopic or fluoroscopic guidance is performed affects reporting details.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Partial gastrectomy removes a gastric segment while leaving remaining stomach tissue; this differs from tube management or full total gastric removal; what was actually documented is replacement through mature gastrostomy tract, not the different evidence of removal of a segment of stomach.

B:

New PEG placement creates access for enteral feeding; it should not be confused with a routine exchange through an established tract; the chart records replacement through mature gastrostomy tract rather than creation of percutaneous gastric feeding access.

C:

Surgical jejunostomy tube placement is supported by documentation of creation of a small-bowel feeding access rather than exchange, removal, or new placement of a gastric tube; here the decisive finding is replacement through mature gastrostomy tract; the defining work for this distractor is absent.

Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Practice Tests