AAPC CPC (Certified Professional Coder) Practice Test 16

Question 150

A clinic administers an injectable drug requiring a Level II drug reporting code. Which supply or modifier designation applies?

  1. A-series supply codes
  2. V-series vision and hearing services
  3. L-series orthotics and prosthetics
  4. J-series injectable drugs

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Many J codes identify drugs not otherwise classified in CPT, often billed by specified unit quantity. The administration service may require a separate appropriate code.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The A family includes many supplies and transportation-related services, with details determined by the current code set; it is not a universal substitute for drugs or physician procedures; the operative or visit note documents drug product measured in HCPCS billing units instead of disposable medical-supply coding.

B:

The required element for V-series vision and hearing services is a vision or hearing service coded in the appropriate Level II V-series rather than injectable drugs, equipment, prosthetics, or supply families; what is described is drug product measured in HCPCS billing units, without evidence for the alternative feature.

C:

L codes generally address orthotic and prosthetic devices and related components; they do not themselves document the evaluation or fitting service when separately reportable; the scenario instead describes drug product measured in HCPCS billing units, without demonstrating orthotic or prosthetic device classification.

Question 151

A painful ingrown toenail is treated by lifting and removing part of its nail plate without permanent root destruction. What specific intervention does the note establish?

  1. Repair of a fingertip pulp laceration
  2. Nail plate avulsion
  3. Nail-bed repair
  4. Paronychia drainage

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Temporary nail avulsion separates and removes the nail plate. It does not itself destroy the germinal matrix and therefore differs from a permanent matrix procedure.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Repair of a fingertip pulp laceration refers to closure of soft tissue on the fingertip pad without removal of nail, treatment of matrix, paronychia drainage, or nail-bed repair, but the documented clinical work is removal of nail plate without matrix ablation; choosing it would misclassify the documented encounter.

C:

Repair of the nail-bed tissues addresses a traumatic laceration; it is distinct from avulsion performed to treat an ingrown nail or drainage of infection; the operative or visit note documents removal of nail plate without matrix ablation instead of operative suturing of torn nail bed.

D:

Incisional drainage of a periungual collection treats infection rather than permanently altering the nail matrix; identify whether the procedure involves the nail plate; the chart records removal of nail plate without matrix ablation rather than drainage of periungual pus collection.

Question 152

A herniated disc fragment compressing a nerve root is surgically removed. Which of these operative services matches the completed work?

  1. Laminotomy
  2. Intervertebral discectomy
  3. Laminectomy for decompression
  4. Percutaneous vertebral augmentation

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Discectomy removes disc material contributing to compression; a laminectomy addresses vertebral bone and a fusion stabilizes motion segments.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Laminotomy is a limited laminar opening, unlike a broad removal of lamina; the procedure may include decompression and should be interpreted from the operative technique; this clinical evidence establishes removal of herniated intervertebral disc material, not limited window cut into vertebral lamina.

C:

A laminectomy removes part or all of lamina to relieve neural compression; level, region, and whether fusion is also performed affect code choices; the chart records removal of herniated intervertebral disc material rather than substantial laminar removal for spinal decompression.

D:

This alternative, Percutaneous vertebral augmentation, concerns cement augmentation of a vertebral body rather than spinal discectomy, lamina removal, or fusion; the alternative is not supported by the documented removal of herniated intervertebral disc material.

Question 153

A surgeon connects an artery directly to the patient's vein to create hemodialysis access. What specific intervention does the note establish?

  1. Prosthetic dialysis AV graft placement
  2. Diagnostic fistulogram of an existing dialysis access
  3. Autogenous dialysis AV fistula creation
  4. Dialysis access surgical revision

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A native arteriovenous fistula uses the patient's own blood vessels, unlike a synthetic bridging graft. Vessel location and configuration determine operative classification.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An arteriovenous graft uses prosthetic conduit, unlike a direct autogenous fistula; subsequent thrombectomy or revision is a separate problem; the reported work involves direct artery-to-native-vein dialysis access and does not establish synthetic conduit for dialysis access.

B:

In Diagnostic fistulogram of an existing dialysis access, the work centers on contrast imaging of the access circuit without forming a new graft or fistula, revision, or clot extraction; instead, the report records direct artery-to-native-vein dialysis access, which supports a different classification.

D:

Revision changes an existing access configuration or outflow to restore function; it is not first-time creation, and the documented technique governs the code family; the operative or visit note documents direct artery-to-native-vein dialysis access instead of operative alteration of existing dialysis access.

Question 154

A defect through an old abdominal incision is repaired after protrusion through the scar. Which surgical service corresponds to the documented operation?

  1. Laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair
  2. Umbilical hernia repair
  3. Incisional ventral hernia repair
  4. Laparoscopic ventral hernia repair

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

An incisional hernia occurs in a prior abdominal wall incision. It differs from primary umbilical or inguinal hernia, and current defect-size rules must be reviewed.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This alternative, Laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair, concerns minimally invasive repair of a groin hernia rather than open inguinal, umbilical, or ventral repair; the alternative is not supported by the documented repair of defect at previous laparotomy scar.

B:

Umbilical hernia is defined by the location at the navel; documentation of size and whether the case is initial or recurrent matters under current abdominal hernia coding frameworks; the documented detail of repair of defect at previous laparotomy scar prevents classifying it as closure of hernia at umbilical ring.

D:

Minimally invasive ventral repair uses intraperitoneal or preperitoneal access; current CPT choices require more than assuming the approach alone selects a unique code; the chart records repair of defect at previous laparotomy scar rather than minimally invasive reinforcement of abdominal wall defect.

Question 155

An internal double-J stent is advanced from renal pelvis to bladder to bypass a ureteral obstruction. What kind of surgical work has been documented?

  1. Ureteral stent placement
  2. Diagnostic ureteroscopy
  3. Retrograde pyelography
  4. Endoscopic ureteral stricture dilation

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Ureteral stenting maintains internal urinary drainage across a blocked ureter. It is not equivalent to extracorporeal fragmentation or nephrostomy drainage through skin.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Diagnostic ureteroscopy provides endoluminal visualization; it is generally integral to a therapeutic ureteroscopic procedure carried out during the same session; the chart records internal drainage tube spanning ureter rather than inspection-only endoscopy inside ureter.

C:

Retrograde urography visualizes ureter and collecting system by contrast injection from below; imaging during a more extensive procedure may be bundled under specific rules; the operative or visit note documents internal drainage tube spanning ureter instead of contrast study of collecting system from bladder.

D:

Endoscopic ureteral stricture dilation refers to balloon or mechanical dilation of a narrowed ureter rather than contrast imaging, drainage stent placement, inspection, or stone lithotripsy, but the documented clinical work is internal drainage tube spanning ureter; choosing it would misclassify the documented encounter.

Question 156

A functioning adrenal tumor is removed together with the affected adrenal gland. Which completed intervention does this operative description support?

  1. Ultrasound-guided thyroid needle aspiration
  2. Adrenalectomy
  3. Total thyroidectomy
  4. Thyroid lobectomy

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Adrenalectomy removes an endocrine gland above the kidney. It differs from nephrectomy and thyroid operations despite their proximity or endocrine indications.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Ultrasound-guided thyroid needle aspiration is supported by documentation of percutaneous cytologic sampling of thyroid tissue instead of operative removal of thyroid, parathyroid, or adrenal gland; here the decisive finding is excision of adrenal gland above kidney; the defining work for this distractor is absent.

C:

Total thyroidectomy removes essentially the entire thyroid gland; it is not limited lobectomy or excision of only a parathyroid gland; the scenario instead describes excision of adrenal gland above kidney, without demonstrating bilateral removal of thyroid tissue.

D:

Lobectomy removes only one thyroid lobe, with extent and isthmus work determined by the operative report; it is less extensive than a total thyroidectomy; the patient record supports excision of adrenal gland above kidney rather than the alternative finding of resection of one thyroid lobe.

Question 157

An endocavitary probe evaluates uterus, endometrium, and adnexa for pelvic pain. Which study matches the documented images and procedure?

  1. Complete abdominal ultrasound
  2. Transvaginal pelvic ultrasound
  3. Limited abdominal ultrasound
  4. Focused thyroid ultrasound

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Transvaginal sonography is distinguished by probe approach and anatomy. It is not equivalent to transabdominal pelvic scanning.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Complete abdominal ultrasound requires evaluation of designated structures rather than a focused view of one organ; A limited scan should not be promoted to a complete exam; to select this alternative the report would need comprehensive imaging of specified abdominal organs, whereas it identifies endovaginal ultrasound assessment of pelvic structures.

C:

A limited abdominal exam evaluates a restricted region or subset of organs; code selection follows the extent documented rather than a generic request for abdominal ultrasound; this clinical evidence establishes endovaginal ultrasound assessment of pelvic structures, not targeted sonography of restricted abdominal organs.

D:

This alternative, Focused thyroid ultrasound, concerns sonographic examination restricted to the thyroid gland rather than abdomen, pelvis, or a vascular duplex examination; the alternative is not supported by the documented endovaginal ultrasound assessment of pelvic structures.

Question 158

A urine immunoassay is performed to detect human chorionic gonadotropin. What laboratory analysis is established by these steps?

  1. Urinary albumin-to-creatinine ratio
  2. Urine dipstick without microscopy
  3. Urine pregnancy test
  4. Urinalysis with microscopy

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Urine hCG screening is a specific pregnancy-related laboratory assay and should not be confused with general dipstick urinalysis or bacterial culture.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Urinary albumin-to-creatinine ratio reflects quantification of low-level urinary albumin relative to creatinine rather than urine dipstick, microscopy, culture, or pregnancy testing, whereas the clinical note identifies urine immunoassay detecting hCG; the different evidence changes the classification.

B:

Dipstick-only urinalysis assesses chemical markers and does not include microscopic examination of cells or casts; manual versus automated methods may be separately classified; the reported work involves urine immunoassay detecting hCG and does not establish chemical urine strip without microscopic sediment.

D:

Microscopic urinalysis evaluates urine cells and formed elements beyond chemical dipstick values; report the method actually performed; this clinical evidence establishes urine immunoassay detecting hCG, not urine chemical analysis plus sediment microscopy.

Question 159

Ultrasound images and Doppler assess ventricular function and valve hemodynamics through the chest wall. What reporting distinction is demonstrated here?

  1. Patient-activated event monitor
  2. Electrocardiogram interpretation
  3. Transthoracic echocardiography
  4. Exercise treadmill stress testing

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Echocardiography uses sound waves to evaluate heart structure and flow. It is different from electrical ECG tracing or nuclear perfusion imaging.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Event monitoring targets intermittent symptoms through triggered recording; it is not the same as continuous Holter data over every minute; the chart records cardiac ultrasonography of structure and blood flow rather than intermittent symptom-triggered rhythm recording.

B:

ECG interpretation is a professional diagnostic component, distinct from acquiring the tracing or prolonged ambulatory rhythm monitoring; reporting depends on the component furnished; to select this alternative the report would need interpretation of standard resting ECG recording, whereas it identifies cardiac ultrasonography of structure and blood flow.

D:

Although Exercise treadmill stress testing may sound adjacent, it denotes provoked cardiac stress assessment using exercise rather than resting ECG, ambulatory rhythm monitoring, or echocardiography; this record documents cardiac ultrasonography of structure and blood flow, which is distinct from that alternative.

Question 160

An established patient submits an online portal question requiring cumulative clinician evaluation over a defined period. Which E/M rule follows from this encounter?

  1. Telephone-only professional evaluation
  2. Asynchronous online digital E/M
  3. Remote physiologic monitoring management
  4. Automated portal appointment reminder

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Online digital E/M involves asynchronous assessment with time or cumulative-period criteria. It is not simply a scheduled real-time video visit.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Audio-only services can follow distinct code and payer requirements; they should not automatically be billed as an in-person office examination; the reported work involves clinician assessment through non-real-time patient portal and does not establish professional clinical assessment conducted by phone only.

C:

Remote monitoring services require device, data, and treatment-management elements under the relevant code and payer rules; casual patient email of a single reading is insufficient; what was actually documented is clinician assessment through non-real-time patient portal, not the different evidence of structured remote monitoring with documented management.

D:

Selecting Automated portal appointment reminder would require computer-generated notification without an eligible professional E/M evaluation or monitoring service; the actual document states clinician assessment through non-real-time patient portal, which distinguishes the correct choice.

Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Practice Tests