AAPC CPC (Certified Professional Coder) Practice Test 15

Question 140

A CBC includes automated white-cell differential counts as well as red-cell indices and platelets. Which test best corresponds to this analytical method?

  1. Reticulocyte count
  2. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
  3. Peripheral blood smear physician review
  4. Complete blood count with automated differential

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

CBC with automated differential includes a white-cell subtype breakdown. Counting the differential twice separately from a panel that already includes it would be duplicative.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Reticulocyte testing assesses red-cell production dynamics rather than routine leukocyte differential or coagulation status; the quantitative method determines the service; the patient record supports automated CBC with leukocyte differential rather than the alternative finding of measurement of immature red blood cell fraction.

B:

This alternative, Erythrocyte sedimentation rate, concerns measurement of red-cell sedimentation in a calibrated tube rather than counting or morphologic assessment of blood cells; the alternative is not supported by the documented automated CBC with leukocyte differential.

C:

Smear interpretation is a professional review service when requirements are met, not merely the automated CBC itself; documentation of interpretation distinguishes it; to select this alternative the report would need interpretive review of peripheral smear morphology, whereas it identifies automated CBC with leukocyte differential.

Question 141

A physician provides professional management during an individual hemodialysis session. What administration or treatment category best fits?

  1. Placement of tunneled dialysis catheter
  2. Single hemodialysis treatment
  3. Dialysis circuit assessment
  4. Monthly ESRD dialysis management

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Single-session dialysis management represents professional work connected with one treatment. Repeated monthly ESRD oversight uses a different coding framework.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Although Placement of tunneled dialysis catheter may sound adjacent, it denotes vascular access device insertion for dialysis rather than nephrologist management, dialysis session, or circuit assessment; this record documents physician management of a discrete hemodialysis session, which is distinct from that alternative.

C:

Access evaluation addresses the vascular circuit and potential intervention, different from routine solute-removal dialysis treatment; code selection follows actual imaging or work performed; the scenario instead describes physician management of a discrete hemodialysis session, without demonstrating assessment of malfunctioning hemodialysis access circuit.

D:

Monthly dialysis services may bundle evaluations over a period with age and encounter-count distinctions; they are not simply added as independent single-session visits; this clinical evidence establishes physician management of a discrete hemodialysis session, not longitudinal monthly ESRD care management.

Question 142

A clinician discusses values, goals, and preferences for future medical decisions and documents the qualifying conversation. What evaluation-and-management principle applies?

  1. Routine appointment scheduling by clerical staff
  2. Chronic care management
  3. Prolonged E/M service
  4. Advance care planning

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Advance care planning is a focused discussion about future treatment choices and may require time and other criteria. It is not inherently a preventive physical examination.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Routine appointment scheduling by clerical staff refers to administrative scheduling without qualifying clinician care management, prolonged evaluation, or advance care planning, but the documented clinical work is documented shared planning for future medical decisions; choosing it would misclassify the documented encounter.

B:

CCM aggregates eligible care-management activities across a month with consent, plan, and time rules; it is not a one-time office follow-up; the scenario instead describes documented shared planning for future medical decisions, without demonstrating monthly non-face-to-face chronic illness care coordination.

C:

Prolonged services have code- and payer-specific thresholds; not every long visit permits the same add-on; do not convert unqualified charting or separately billed work into prolonged time; to select this alternative the report would need eligible time exceeding base E/M threshold, whereas it identifies documented shared planning for future medical decisions.

Question 143

A practitioner provides anesthetic care for intraocular lens surgery through an anterior eye approach. What anesthesia classification best matches the note?

  1. Anesthesia for intraperitoneal operation
  2. Anesthesia for cataract operation
  3. Anesthesia for open-heart bypass surgery
  4. Anesthesia for knee reconstruction

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Anesthesia procedure selection follows the actual ophthalmic operation and anatomical region. It is not picked solely because the patient received sedation instead of general anesthesia.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The appropriate anesthesia family is tied to the operative site and service, not simply to the fact that a general anesthetic was used; what was actually documented is anesthesia associated with lens operation in eye, not the different evidence of anesthesia for major intraperitoneal surgery.

C:

Anesthesia for open-heart bypass surgery refers to anesthetic management specifically for open cardiac surgery rather than ophthalmic, orthopedic, obstetric, or abdominal surgery, but the documented clinical work is anesthesia associated with lens operation in eye; choosing it would misclassify the documented encounter.

D:

Anesthesia code selection reflects lower-extremity knee procedure anatomy and codebook rules; the physical status classification is reported separately from the procedure family; the scenario instead describes anesthesia associated with lens operation in eye, without demonstrating anesthesia associated with knee musculoskeletal surgery.

Question 144

A nuclear medicine report describes an injected radiotracer and several views showing pulmonary blood-flow distribution. No inhaled tracer or ventilation images were obtained. Which completed study is supported?

  1. Combined lung ventilation and perfusion scintigraphy
  2. CT pulmonary angiography with IV contrast
  3. Ventilation imaging alone using inhaled tracer
  4. Lung perfusion imaging without ventilation imaging

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Only the perfusion component was acquired. A full ventilation-perfusion study requires the separate ventilation portion, which is absent from the completed record.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A combined V/Q protocol includes ventilation as well as perfusion images. The absence of an inhaled-tracer phase rules out the complete combined service.

B:

CTA relies on cross-sectional X-ray CT with iodinated contrast rather than planar nuclear medicine images acquired after injection of a tracer.

C:

A ventilation-only study would document inhaled radiopharmaceutical and airflow images, but this report specifically records a perfusion tracer.

Question 145

Each swallowing attempt causes marked pain although the patient can swallow. What terminology identifies the documented process?

  1. Aphagia
  2. Regurgitation
  3. Odynophagia
  4. Dysphagia

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Odyno- specifies pain associated with the act of swallowing. It should not be substituted for a mechanical inability or an indigestion symptom.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The prefix a- expresses absence, and -phagia refers to swallowing; the degree of loss is more complete than simple difficulty with swallowing; the reported work involves pain provoked by swallowing and does not establish absence of ability to swallow.

B:

Regurgitation is supported by documentation of return of swallowed gastric or esophageal contents into the mouth rather than difficulty or pain swallowing, inability to swallow, or indigestion; here the decisive finding is pain provoked by swallowing; the defining work for this distractor is absent.

D:

Dys- indicates difficulty or impairment and -phagia refers to swallowing or eating; the complaint differs from painful swallowing and nonspecific indigestion; the controlling finding is pain provoked by swallowing, which is distinct from difficulty swallowing a bolus.

Question 146

A dense band connects skeletal muscle to a bone at its insertion. What anatomical term correctly names this site?

  1. Meniscus
  2. Ligament
  3. Tendon
  4. Synovial membrane

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Tendons transmit muscular force to bones. This differs from ligamentous stabilization between bones or the articular cushioning of cartilage.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Knee menisci improve load distribution and joint congruity; they differ from the hyaline cartilage coating the bony articular surfaces; what was actually documented is attachment of muscle to bone, not the different evidence of semilunar fibrocartilage within the knee.

B:

Ligaments restrain excessive motion between bones; they are not the same as a tendon that transfers muscular force; connection between bones is not recorded; the evidence points to attachment of muscle to bone.

D:

Selecting Synovial membrane would require the joint-lining tissue that produces synovial fluid, distinct from tendon, ligament, cartilage, or meniscus; the actual document states attachment of muscle to bone, which distinguishes the correct choice.

Question 147

A claim reports a higher-intensity service than the documented work supports. Which Medicare concept describes the record?

  1. Medical necessity review
  2. Upcoding
  3. Compliance self-audit
  4. False Claims Act exposure

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Assigning a level above the supported documentation creates an accuracy and potential fraud risk. The amount billed must correspond to actual work and applicable rules.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Medical necessity review involves an assessment of clinical indications for billed work rather than deliberate overcoding, unbundling, or a full internal audit; the note describes unsupported increase in reported service intensity instead, changing the applicable classification.

C:

Internal review is designed to detect patterns and correct deficiencies before they persist; it is different from automatically denying a claim or prospectively obtaining consent; the scenario instead describes unsupported increase in reported service intensity, without demonstrating scheduled internal review of coded services.

D:

Liability can arise for knowingly submitting or causing false claims; an ordinary corrected clerical mistake is not the same as knowing misrepresentation; the documented detail of unsupported increase in reported service intensity prevents classifying it as knowingly false government claim.

Question 148

A code requires a filler character so that the encounter character remains in the required seventh position. Which rule should the coder apply here?

  1. Placeholder X
  2. Mandatory code extension for an obstetric week
  3. Specific laterality
  4. Required seventh character

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

ICD-10-CM uses X as a placeholder in specified code families. Omitting the character can shift the seventh character and leave an invalid code structure.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The distinguishing evidence for Mandatory code extension for an obstetric week would be use of a separate gestational-week code when applicable, rather than a seventh-character injury extension or placeholder; the described patient or procedure has placeholder preserving seventh position, not those features.

C:

Laterality must follow the documented side when a code offers it; unspecified side is not justified when a reliable side is clearly recorded; what was actually documented is placeholder preserving seventh position, not the different evidence of documented left versus right side.

D:

Seventh characters carry encounter meaning within designated code categories; they are not interchangeable with the patient's first ever visit or merely an office follow-up date; the distinction is the record’s placeholder preserving seventh position versus the alternative of encounter-phase character in seventh position.

Question 149

Itchy chronic eczematous patches are assessed as atopic eczema. Which diagnosis classification reflects the signed assessment?

  1. Cellulitis of lower limb
  2. Seborrheic keratosis
  3. Cutaneous abscess
  4. Atopic dermatitis

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Atopic dermatitis is an inflammatory pruritic dermatosis, not necessarily infection or a pressure-related wound. A specific named dermatitis should not be coded as generic skin infection.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Cellulitis is diffuse bacterial infection of skin and underlying tissues, distinct from a localized abscess that can be drained; laterality and location may refine coding; the patient record supports chronic atopic eczematous inflammation rather than the alternative finding of diffuse skin infection without localized pus cavity.

B:

Seborrheic keratosis corresponds to a benign superficial epidermal growth rather than inflammation, pressure injury, or bacterial skin infection; the record specifies chronic atopic eczematous inflammation. Those details establish different classifications.

C:

Abscess indicates localized suppuration and often necessitates drainage; it is not the same as diffuse cellulitis or a sterile cyst; the scenario instead describes chronic atopic eczematous inflammation, without demonstrating focal skin infection with pus collection.

Question 150

A clinic administers an injectable drug requiring a Level II drug reporting code. Which supply or modifier designation applies?

  1. A-series supply codes
  2. V-series vision and hearing services
  3. L-series orthotics and prosthetics
  4. J-series injectable drugs

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Many J codes identify drugs not otherwise classified in CPT, often billed by specified unit quantity. The administration service may require a separate appropriate code.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The A family includes many supplies and transportation-related services, with details determined by the current code set; it is not a universal substitute for drugs or physician procedures; the operative or visit note documents drug product measured in HCPCS billing units instead of disposable medical-supply coding.

B:

The required element for V-series vision and hearing services is a vision or hearing service coded in the appropriate Level II V-series rather than injectable drugs, equipment, prosthetics, or supply families; what is described is drug product measured in HCPCS billing units, without evidence for the alternative feature.

C:

L codes generally address orthotic and prosthetic devices and related components; they do not themselves document the evaluation or fitting service when separately reportable; the scenario instead describes drug product measured in HCPCS billing units, without demonstrating orthotic or prosthetic device classification.

Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Practice Tests