AAPC CPC (Certified Professional Coder) Practice Test 11

Question 100

A core of hepatic parenchyma is acquired through the skin for diagnostic evaluation. How should the clinician’s described operative work be identified?

  1. Hepatic wedge resection
  2. Partial hepatectomy
  3. Percutaneous liver needle biopsy
  4. Transjugular liver biopsy

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Percutaneous biopsy samples liver without a laparoscopic or open surgical exposure. Image guidance and technique may be included or separately governed by current codes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Wedge excision removes a limited nonanatomic portion of liver; an anatomic lobar or segmental resection is more extensive and uses different operative boundaries; the operative or visit note documents needle sampling of hepatic parenchyma through skin instead of localized nonanatomic liver tissue removal.

B:

Hepatectomy excises a defined portion of liver, with scope controlled by segments and major vascular structures involved; it is not merely needle biopsy; the chart records needle sampling of hepatic parenchyma through skin rather than removal of a named portion of hepatic parenchyma.

D:

The distinguishing evidence for Transjugular liver biopsy would be liver tissue sampled through venous access using a transjugular route rather than percutaneous or laparoscopic approach or hepatic resection; the described patient or procedure has needle sampling of hepatic parenchyma through skin, not those features.

Question 101

A benign ovarian cyst is dissected out while functional ovarian tissue is saved. How should this completed operation be classified?

  1. Laparoscopic detorsion of viable ovary
  2. Oophorectomy
  3. Salpingostomy for ectopic pregnancy
  4. Ovarian cystectomy

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Cystectomy preserves remaining ovary and removes the localized cyst. It differs from complete oophorectomy or tubal operations.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Selecting Laparoscopic detorsion of viable ovary would require untwisting of an adnexa to restore perfusion without excising cyst, ovary, or fallopian tube; the actual document states cyst removed with ovarian tissue preserved, which distinguishes the correct choice.

B:

Oophorectomy removes ovarian tissue; it is not equivalent to excising only an ovarian cyst or removing the fallopian tube; the patient record supports cyst removed with ovarian tissue preserved rather than the alternative finding of excision of ovarian organ.

C:

Salpingostomy treats selected tubal ectopic pregnancy without excising the entire tube; the distinction from salpingectomy is organ preservation; the distinction is the record’s cyst removed with ovarian tissue preserved versus the alternative of ectopic tissue evacuated through tube-preserving incision.

Question 102

A painful posttraumatic nerve-end neuroma is identified and surgically removed. What specific intervention does the note establish?

  1. Peripheral nerve neurolysis
  2. Neuroma excision
  3. Peripheral nerve direct repair
  4. Carpal tunnel release for median nerve compression

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Neuroma excision targets abnormal nerve proliferation associated with pain. It differs from decompression of an intact nerve without tissue removal.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Neurolysis liberates a nerve from fibrotic attachments without deliberately cutting or replacing the nerve; it is not nerve grafting; the distinction is the record’s resection of pathologic nerve-end enlargement versus the alternative of decompression of intact nerve trapped in scar.

C:

Direct neurorrhaphy restores continuity of a divided nerve; it is distinct from releasing an intact compressed nerve or grafting across a gap; the scenario instead describes resection of pathologic nerve-end enlargement, without demonstrating suture coaptation of divided peripheral nerve ends.

D:

The Carpal tunnel release for median nerve compression choice presumes surgical division of a transverse carpal ligament rather than nerve transection repair, graft, neuroma removal, or neurolysis; the record instead establishes resection of pathologic nerve-end enlargement, making that alternative an inaccurate description.

Question 103

Contrast is introduced into a shoulder joint before a dedicated MR examination of labral pathology. Which imaging study matches the acquisition described?

  1. MRI without contrast
  2. MRI of joint without injected arthrographic contrast
  3. Direct MR arthrography
  4. MRI with and without contrast

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Direct arthrography places contrast into the joint space, rather than simple intravenous enhancement. The injection and MR component may have distinct reporting rules.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Noncontrast MRI visualizes tissue using magnetic fields and radiofrequency pulses; it differs from intra-articular contrast arthrography and contrast-enhanced vascular studies; the patient record supports intra-articular contrast preceding joint MRI rather than the alternative finding of magnetic resonance exam without contrast agent.

B:

The MRI of joint without injected arthrographic contrast choice presumes standard joint MR without intra-articular contrast, separate from a direct MR arthrogram; the record instead establishes intra-articular contrast preceding joint MRI, making that alternative an inaccurate description.

D:

Combined MR protocol documents both precontrast and postcontrast imaging; A postcontrast-only exam should not be assumed when both are obtained; the reported work involves intra-articular contrast preceding joint MRI and does not establish pre- and post-gadolinium MRI sequences.

Question 104

A chemical reagent strip is tested for protein, glucose, and blood without sediment review. How should the assay or procedure be identified?

  1. Urinalysis with microscopy
  2. Urine culture
  3. Urine dipstick without microscopy
  4. Urinary albumin-to-creatinine ratio

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Dipstick-only urinalysis assesses chemical markers and does not include microscopic examination of cells or casts. Manual versus automated methods may be separately classified.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Microscopic urinalysis evaluates urine cells and formed elements beyond chemical dipstick values; report the method actually performed; the distinction is the record’s chemical urine strip without microscopic sediment versus the alternative of urine chemical analysis plus sediment microscopy.

B:

Culture evaluates viable microorganisms by growth, unlike instantaneous dipstick screening; identification and susceptibility work may be additional specific services; the controlling finding is chemical urine strip without microscopic sediment, which is distinct from microbial growth from incubated urine specimen.

D:

Urinary albumin-to-creatinine ratio corresponds to quantification of low-level urinary albumin relative to creatinine rather than urine dipstick, microscopy, culture, or pregnancy testing; the record specifies chemical urine strip without microscopic sediment. Those details establish different classifications.

Question 105

A cytotoxic agent is delivered by IV push rather than a timed drip infusion. Which medicine service is represented by these facts?

  1. Sequential chemotherapy infusion
  2. Initial chemotherapy IV infusion
  3. Subcutaneous antineoplastic drug administration
  4. Chemotherapy intravenous push

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Chemotherapy push administration is distinguished by rapid delivery mechanism. It must not be coded as a lengthy infusion solely because the medication is an antineoplastic drug.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Sequential infusion represents an additional substance or sequence under applicable rules; A continued bag of the same substance is not automatically a new sequential service; the chart records direct IV push of antineoplastic agent rather than second separately administered chemotherapy substance.

B:

Chemotherapy administration codes follow their own hierarchy and differ from ordinary therapeutic drug infusion; the drug and administration technique must support classification; the documented detail of direct IV push of antineoplastic agent prevents classifying it as primary timed infusion of antineoplastic agent.

C:

Subcutaneous antineoplastic drug administration refers to antineoplastic agent delivered through subcutaneous injection rather than intravenous initial, sequential, or push administration or port maintenance, but the documented clinical work is direct IV push of antineoplastic agent; choosing it would misclassify the documented encounter.

Question 106

An acute illness threatens life and a decision is made about hospitalization for urgent treatment. What evaluation-and-management principle applies?

  1. High MDM
  2. Low MDM
  3. Time-based E/M level selection
  4. Straightforward MDM

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

High decision making requires supported high-severity elements, often including threat to bodily function and consequential management choices. A dramatic description alone is insufficient.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Low MDM reflects a limited degree of problem complexity and treatment risk; the final level must meet the required combination of MDM elements, not rely on diagnosis name alone; the documented detail of acute threat to life with high-stakes disposition prevents classifying it as one stable chronic condition with low risk.

C:

Although Time-based E/M level selection may sound adjacent, it denotes selection of a visit level from qualifying clinician time rather than assigning straightforward, low, moderate, or high MDM; this record documents acute threat to life with high-stakes disposition, which is distinct from that alternative.

D:

Straightforward decision making involves minimal complexity across the MDM elements; minor symptoms do not become high-complexity simply because multiple templates were completed; the controlling finding is acute threat to life with high-stakes disposition, which is distinct from minimal problem data and risk complexity.

Question 107

Continuous qualifying anesthesia minutes are converted into units under a payer's stated conversion rule. Which coding rule governs this anesthetic encounter?

  1. Postoperative hospital room charge
  2. Anesthesia time-unit component
  3. Anesthesia base-unit component
  4. Physical-status adjustment

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Time units represent actual qualifying intraservice minutes and may be calculated using the payer's unit interval. Do not include unrelated preoperative or recovery time.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Postoperative hospital room charge is supported by documentation of facility room or recovery charge distinct from anesthesia base units, time units, physical-status adjustments, or conversion factor; here the decisive finding is qualifying minutes converted by payer interval; the defining work for this distractor is absent.

C:

Base units represent relative complexity attributed to the anesthesia procedure category; they are distinct from time units and do not grow simply because surgery lasted longer; the distinction is the record’s qualifying minutes converted by payer interval versus the alternative of fixed base units associated with anesthesia code.

D:

Physical status describes patient systemic risk, and whether it affects payment varies by payer; the modifier cannot replace the operative anesthesia code or documented time; the chart records qualifying minutes converted by payer interval rather than payer-recognized physical status adjustment.

Question 108

An outpatient is given medically necessary IV saline for 22 minutes; start and stop times are precise. No other drug is injected. What is the correct treatment of a stand-alone hydration administration code?

  1. Report a prolonged hydration add-on interval
  2. Report the initial hour of therapeutic hydration
  3. Report an intravenous medication push
  4. No separately billable hydration code for 22 minutes

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Under standard CPT hydration timing, a 30-minute-or-shorter hydration interval does not support the initial hydration administration service. Other services must be assessed independently.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Prolonged hydration units require qualifying additional time beyond a reportable initial interval, not a session lasting only 22 minutes.

B:

The existence of an IV line is insufficient. The documented 22 minutes falls short of the usual initial hydration timing threshold.

C:

An IV push denotes drug administration by direct injection. The only substance documented here is saline used for hydration, not a pushed medication.

Question 109

Breathlessness appears when lying flat and improves while the patient sits up. What terminology identifies the documented process?

  1. Dyspnea
  2. Tachypnea
  3. Orthopnea
  4. Hyperpnea

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Ortho- here signals the positional relationship of dyspnea. The decisive feature is relief by becoming upright, not just faster breathing.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Dyspnea describes perceived breathing difficulty; it can occur at different respiratory rates and does not itself specify an apneic event; what was actually documented is positional breathlessness while supine, not the different evidence of subjective breathing discomfort.

B:

Tachypnea is an increased rate of breathing, not inherently difficult breathing or a complete stop in airflow; rate and perceived effort are separate observations; to select this alternative the report would need abnormally fast breathing frequency, whereas it identifies positional breathlessness while supine.

D:

The distinguishing evidence for Hyperpnea would be increased depth of respiration, which is different from stopped breathing, rapid breaths alone, subjective breathlessness, or orthopnea; the described patient or procedure has positional breathlessness while supine, not those features.

Question 110

Blood passes through the pulmonary valve from this chamber into the pulmonary trunk. Which listed anatomy corresponds to the description?

  1. Left atrium
  2. Right ventricle
  3. Left ventricle
  4. Interventricular septum

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The right-sided pumping chamber sends deoxygenated blood into pulmonary circulation. Its outflow is not the aorta.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The left upper chamber receives blood returning from the lungs and passes it to the left ventricle across the mitral valve; the controlling finding is pumping blood into the pulmonary trunk, which is distinct from receiving oxygenated pulmonary venous return.

C:

Systemic arterial ejection originates from the left ventricle; its thicker muscle reflects the pressure demands of the systemic circulation; the patient record supports pumping blood into the pulmonary trunk rather than the alternative finding of ejecting blood into the aorta.

D:

The Interventricular septum choice presumes the muscular dividing wall between the two ventricular chambers, not an atrium or ventricle itself; the record instead establishes pumping blood into the pulmonary trunk, making that alternative an inaccurate description.

Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Practice Tests