AAPC CPC (Certified Professional Coder) Practice Test 10

Question 90

A hysteroscopy is scheduled to remove a suspected uterine polyp. Direct inspection reveals normal endometrium without a polyp, and the surgeon performs inspection only, with no biopsy or ablation. Which completed procedure is supported?

  1. Office endometrial sampling or curettage
  2. Operative hysteroscopic polypectomy
  3. Hysteroscopic endometrial ablation
  4. Diagnostic hysteroscopy only

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The operative report documents visualization but no treatment. The originally planned polypectomy cannot be coded as completed when no lesion was removed.

Incorrect Answers

A:

No tissue was obtained. A diagnostic view of the cavity is not automatically a biopsy or curettage service. A tissue-acquiring endometrial procedure would require an actual sampler or curette and corresponding operative documentation.

B:

Polypectomy requires actual removal of a polyp under hysteroscopic visualization, which the finalized operative note specifically excludes.

C:

Ablation destroys endometrial tissue for treatment. No ablation device or tissue destruction is documented during this inspection.

Question 91

The surgeon creates a new opening between an internal organ and an external or other surface. Which term matches the described observation?

  1. Incision or -otomy
  2. Stoma creation or -ostomy
  3. Suturing or -rrhaphy
  4. Excision or -ectomy

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The -ostomy suffix denotes construction of a surgical opening or outlet. It is distinct from temporary incision or excision of that organ.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The -otomy ending means cutting into a structure; operative intent determines whether another more definitive repair or removal is actually documented; this clinical evidence establishes creation of a new surgical opening, not deliberate surgical incision into a structure.

C:

Although Suturing or -rrhaphy may sound adjacent, it denotes operative suturing of a torn tissue rather than excision, incision, stoma formation, or plastic reconstruction; this record documents creation of a new surgical opening, which is distinct from that alternative.

D:

The -ectomy suffix denotes surgical removal of the named structure; it is not simply an incision into the organ or construction of a new passage; the chart records creation of a new surgical opening rather than surgical removal of tissue or organ.

Question 92

Bulk reabsorption of filtered solutes and water occurs immediately after the renal corpuscle. Which body structure is being described?

  1. Urethra
  2. Urinary bladder
  3. Proximal convoluted tubule
  4. Glomerulus

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

This nephron segment retrieves much of the filtered load. Its position differs from the downstream collecting system.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The urethra provides the terminal drainage pathway; its anatomy and procedures differ from ureteral interventions; the controlling finding is early tubular bulk reabsorption, which is distinct from urine passage from bladder to exterior.

B:

In Urinary bladder, the work centers on the hollow muscular reservoir for urine before it exits through the urethra; instead, the report records early tubular bulk reabsorption, which supports a different classification.

D:

Initial plasma ultrafiltration is a glomerular function; reabsorption and final urine transport occur downstream in tubules and collecting structures; the distinction is the record’s early tubular bulk reabsorption versus the alternative of capillary tuft responsible for filtration.

Question 93

An office reimbursement discussion compares physician work, practice expense, and malpractice resource components. Which compliance principle controls this situation?

  1. Relative Value Units
  2. Place of service code
  3. Medicare claims appeal
  4. Prior authorization

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

RVUs are relative resource measures used within Medicare physician fee schedule methodology. They are not coverage determinations and do not independently prove medical necessity.

Incorrect Answers

B:

POS identifies where the professional service was performed for claim processing; it differs from an anatomic modifier identifying laterality or body part; service-setting identifier on professional claim is not recorded; the evidence points to resource valuation of physician services.

C:

Selecting Medicare claims appeal would require formal challenge to a denied adjudicated claim rather than pre-service authorization, unit valuation, place reporting, or voluntary corrected billing; the actual document states resource valuation of physician services, which distinguishes the correct choice.

D:

Prior authorization is a payer utilization process; it does not guarantee payment when documentation or coverage rules are later unmet; it is not equivalent to an ABN; the documented detail of resource valuation of physician services prevents classifying it as payer approval requested before service.

Question 94

A healed fracture causes a persistent nerve deficit months after acute treatment has ended. What documentation rule controls the classification?

  1. Underdosing
  2. Sequela of injury
  3. Adverse effect
  4. Toxic effect of a nonmedicinal substance

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Sequela coding identifies a residual effect of an earlier injury. It differs from active treatment and routine healing-phase care under the seventh-character rules.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Underdosing means less medication taken than prescribed, and the reason may require additional coding; it should not be mislabeled as toxicity from excess medication; the reported work involves residual problem after an injury has healed and does not establish medication taken below prescribed amount.

C:

An adverse effect arises from correctly administered medication; coding typically identifies the manifestation and then the drug adverse-effect classification as directed; it is not an overdose; this clinical evidence establishes residual problem after an injury has healed, not reaction to correctly used medication.

D:

Toxic effect of a nonmedicinal substance reflects harm from exposure to a nonmedicinal chemical rather than an adverse effect, overdose, underdosing, or sequela of an injury, whereas the clinical note identifies residual problem after an injury has healed; the different evidence changes the classification.

Question 95

A fluctuant localized collection of purulent material is diagnosed beneath the skin. What ICD-10-CM concept is represented?

  1. Seborrheic keratosis
  2. Cutaneous abscess
  3. Pressure ulcer stage two
  4. Cellulitis of lower limb

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Abscess indicates localized suppuration and often necessitates drainage. It is not the same as diffuse cellulitis or a sterile cyst.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Seborrheic keratosis reflects a benign superficial epidermal growth rather than inflammation, pressure injury, or bacterial skin infection, whereas the clinical note identifies focal skin infection with pus collection; the different evidence changes the classification.

C:

Stage 2 pressure injury is partial-thickness loss, unlike stages extending into deeper tissues; the clinician should establish the pressure ulcer diagnosis and stage documentation should meet coding rules; this clinical evidence establishes focal skin infection with pus collection, not partial-thickness pressure injury with visible dermis.

D:

Cellulitis is diffuse bacterial infection of skin and underlying tissues, distinct from a localized abscess that can be drained; laterality and location may refine coding; diffuse skin infection without localized pus cavity is not recorded; the evidence points to focal skin infection with pus collection.

Question 96

The device is fitted to the patient's left limb. Which supply or modifier designation applies?

  1. Right-side modifier RT
  2. Bilateral modifier 50
  3. Modifier E2 for the lower-left eyelid
  4. Left-side modifier LT

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

LT identifies the left anatomic side where appropriate. It does not document a right-sided or bilateral service.

Incorrect Answers

A:

RT marks the right anatomic side where recognized by the code and payer; it is different from billing a bilateral procedure without a side distinction; this clinical evidence establishes left-sided supplied item or service, not right-sided supplied item or service.

B:

Modifier 50 conveys a bilateral procedure where CPT and payer rules permit; it is not universally applicable to every code with two anatomic sides; the reported work involves left-sided supplied item or service and does not establish eligible procedure completed on both sides.

C:

Selecting Modifier E2 for the lower-left eyelid would require a site specifically documented as the lower lid of the left eye, not an upper-left lid or simple right/left body-side designation; the actual document states left-sided supplied item or service, which distinguishes the correct choice.

Question 97

A traumatic wound requires separately documented closure of deeper subcutaneous tissue and epidermis. Which of these operative services matches the completed work?

  1. Intermediate wound repair
  2. Adjacent tissue transfer
  3. Healing by secondary intention without sutured closure
  4. Complex wound repair

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Layered closure generally supports intermediate repair when the applicable rules are met. Its classification depends on technique, not merely a long suture line or patient's discomfort.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Local tissue rearrangement is classified differently from direct linear repair; the flap creates tissue movement into a defect, with area calculations specific to the procedure family; this clinical evidence establishes closure of deeper tissue plus skin, not local flap advanced or rotated into defect.

C:

The required element for Healing by secondary intention without sutured closure is leaving the defect open to granulate without simple, layered, complex, or flap closure; what is described is closure of deeper tissue plus skin, without evidence for the alternative feature.

D:

Complex repair requires features specified by the applicable CPT definitions, not just numerous stitches; identify the qualifying complex technique and anatomic location; the patient record supports closure of deeper tissue plus skin rather than the alternative finding of extensive qualifying complex reconstructive closure.

Question 98

A removable or noncircumferential support stabilizes the wrist after an examination. How should the clinician’s described operative work be identified?

  1. Short-arm cast application
  2. Long-arm cast application
  3. Skeletal traction
  4. Wrist splint application

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Splinting provides support without a full circumferential cast. The practitioner must distinguish application work from bundled fracture care or a separately supplied device.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A cast surrounds the limb with rigid immobilization; whether separate application is payable depends on who provides definitive fracture treatment and payer rules; the documented detail of noncircumferential wrist immobilizer prevents classifying it as rigid circumferential forearm immobilization.

B:

Long-arm cast application refers to circumferential immobilization extending above the elbow rather than a short-arm cast, wrist splint, strapping, or traction pin, but the documented clinical work is noncircumferential wrist immobilizer; choosing it would misclassify the documented encounter.

C:

Skeletal traction transmits pulling force through bone-mounted hardware, not simply a taped skin traction setup or an ordinary cast; the controlling finding is noncircumferential wrist immobilizer, which is distinct from traction force applied through skeletal pin.

Question 99

A visible endobronchial lesion is sampled by passing tissue forceps through a scope. Which of these operative services matches the completed work?

  1. Bronchoscopy with cytology brushings
  2. Bronchoscopy with lavage
  3. Transbronchial needle aspiration
  4. Bronchoscopy with forceps biopsy

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Endobronchial biopsy acquires tissue from an airway lesion under direct bronchoscopic visualization. It differs from lavage sampling and needle aspiration of a node.

Incorrect Answers

A:

In Bronchoscopy with cytology brushings, the work centers on cellular sampling using a bronchial brushing device instead of forceps tissue biopsy, needle aspiration, or wash/lavage; instead, the report records bronchoscopic tissue sampling with forceps, which supports a different classification.

B:

Bronchoalveolar lavage samples material from distal airways by instilling and retrieving fluid; it is different from simply looking through a scope or taking tissue cores; the scenario instead describes bronchoscopic tissue sampling with forceps, without demonstrating endoscopic bronchial fluid instillation and recovery.

C:

Needle aspiration traverses the bronchial wall to collect cytology or tissue; the documented imaging guidance and sampled stations must be reviewed for current code details; the scenario instead describes bronchoscopic tissue sampling with forceps, without demonstrating needle acquisition of tissue outside bronchial wall.

Question 100

A core of hepatic parenchyma is acquired through the skin for diagnostic evaluation. How should the clinician’s described operative work be identified?

  1. Hepatic wedge resection
  2. Partial hepatectomy
  3. Percutaneous liver needle biopsy
  4. Transjugular liver biopsy

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Percutaneous biopsy samples liver without a laparoscopic or open surgical exposure. Image guidance and technique may be included or separately governed by current codes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Wedge excision removes a limited nonanatomic portion of liver; an anatomic lobar or segmental resection is more extensive and uses different operative boundaries; the operative or visit note documents needle sampling of hepatic parenchyma through skin instead of localized nonanatomic liver tissue removal.

B:

Hepatectomy excises a defined portion of liver, with scope controlled by segments and major vascular structures involved; it is not merely needle biopsy; the chart records needle sampling of hepatic parenchyma through skin rather than removal of a named portion of hepatic parenchyma.

D:

The distinguishing evidence for Transjugular liver biopsy would be liver tissue sampled through venous access using a transjugular route rather than percutaneous or laparoscopic approach or hepatic resection; the described patient or procedure has needle sampling of hepatic parenchyma through skin, not those features.

Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Practice Tests