Question 890

The acceptance criteria for an AWS solution include the ability to select deployment geography to align with applicable organizational requirements. Which item should the team choose?

  1. AWS Local Zones
  2. CloudFront origin
  3. Regional jurisdiction planning
  4. Regional disaster recovery tests

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Regional jurisdiction planning matches the goal to select deployment geography to align with applicable organizational requirements because region choices can help address jurisdictional and contractual requirements for where workloads run. Compliance also requires suitable security controls and data-flow reviews. Regional disaster recovery tests is for the different objective to verify a workload can resume in its backup Region; the requested capability is Regional jurisdiction planning to select deployment geography to align with applicable organizational requirements, in contrast with Regional disaster recovery tests to verify a workload can resume in its backup Region.

Incorrect Answers

A:

AWS Local Zones addresses the separate need to place supported resources closer to large population centers where a full Region is farther away because local Zones extend certain AWS services near end users while connected to a parent Region; it is not as direct as Regional jurisdiction planning for the actual requirement to select deployment geography to align with applicable organizational requirements.

B:

CloudFront origin addresses the separate need to provide the source from which edge caches fetch content on a miss because a CloudFront distribution retrieves objects or responses from a configured origin when needed; it is not as direct as Regional jurisdiction planning for the actual requirement to select deployment geography to align with applicable organizational requirements.

D:

Regional disaster recovery tests addresses the separate need to verify a workload can resume in its backup Region because recovery exercises check replication, dependencies and traffic-routing procedures before a real incident; it is not as direct as Regional jurisdiction planning for the actual requirement to select deployment geography to align with applicable organizational requirements.

Question 891

The solution currently handles its need to keep rarely accessed archives with millisecond access when requested with S3 Glacier Instant Retrieval. A new requirement is to retain long-lived archives at very low storage cost when restoration can be slow instead. Which service or principle addresses that different need?

  1. S3 Glacier Instant Retrieval
  2. S3 Glacier Deep Archive
  3. S3 request and retrieval pricing
  4. Amazon S3 Intelligent-Tiering

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

S3 Glacier Deep Archive addresses the new need to retain long-lived archives at very low storage cost when restoration can be slow because deep Archive is designed for extremely infrequent access and long retention; S3 Glacier Instant Retrieval supports the different existing task to keep rarely accessed archives with millisecond access when requested.

Incorrect Answers

A:

S3 Glacier Instant Retrieval primarily supports the earlier need to keep rarely accessed archives with millisecond access when requested because glacier Instant Retrieval combines archival pricing characteristics with immediate retrieval, but the new task is to retain long-lived archives at very low storage cost when restoration can be slow; that is why S3 Glacier Deep Archive is preferable here.

C:

S3 request and retrieval pricing is intended to assess storage cost beyond the gigabyte-month charge because S3 charges can include requests and retrievals in addition to stored capacity; in this design the new outcome is to retain long-lived archives at very low storage cost when restoration can be slow, which calls for S3 Glacier Deep Archive rather than S3 request and retrieval pricing or the earlier S3 Glacier Instant Retrieval.

D:

Amazon S3 Intelligent-Tiering is intended to optimize storage charges when object access patterns are unpredictable because intelligent-Tiering can move eligible objects between access tiers based on use; in this design the new outcome is to retain long-lived archives at very low storage cost when restoration can be slow, which calls for S3 Glacier Deep Archive rather than Amazon S3 Intelligent-Tiering or the earlier S3 Glacier Instant Retrieval.

Question 892

A reviewer suggests Manual console provisioning when asked how to review proposed stack changes before executing them, although that offering is primarily used to perform a one-off configuration with interactive review. Which alternative is the more precise choice?

  1. AWS CloudFormation change sets
  2. AWS Management Console
  3. Manual console provisioning
  4. AWS CLI

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

AWS CloudFormation change sets addresses the new need to review proposed stack changes before executing them because change sets preview resource modifications CloudFormation plans to make; Manual console provisioning supports the different existing task to perform a one-off configuration with interactive review.

Incorrect Answers

B:

AWS Management Console is intended to perform occasional AWS administration through a browser interface because the console provides graphical pages to view and configure AWS resources; in this design the new outcome is to review proposed stack changes before executing them, which calls for AWS CloudFormation change sets rather than AWS Management Console or the earlier Manual console provisioning.

C:

Manual console provisioning primarily supports the earlier need to perform a one-off configuration with interactive review because the console suits an infrequent human-guided operation when repetition is not the priority, but the new task is to review proposed stack changes before executing them; that is why AWS CloudFormation change sets is preferable here.

D:

AWS CLI is intended to run scripted AWS API operations from shell commands because the AWS Command Line Interface exposes AWS service operations to terminals and automation; in this design the new outcome is to review proposed stack changes before executing them, which calls for AWS CloudFormation change sets rather than AWS CLI or the earlier Manual console provisioning.

Question 893

In an architecture review, AWS Developer Tools was selected to recognize the separation of build release deploy and tracing functions. Which account of its behavior justifies this decision?

  1. This capability uses topics and subscriptions to publish messages to multiple destinations.
  2. This capability provides frontend deployment and backend integrations for app teams.
  3. SQS holds messages for consumers to process independently.
  4. AWS developer services specialize in different steps of software delivery.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

AWS Developer Tools meets the goal to recognize the separation of build release deploy and tracing functions because AWS developer services specialize in different steps of software delivery. Using one component does not automatically provide every pipeline stage.

Incorrect Answers

A:

That description belongs to Amazon SNS because sNS uses topics and subscriptions to publish messages to multiple destinations; it is used to fan out notifications to multiple subscribed endpoints, not to explain how AWS Developer Tools provides the function to recognize the separation of build release deploy and tracing functions.

B:

That description belongs to AWS Amplify because amplify provides frontend deployment and backend integrations for app teams; it is used to build and host web or mobile application frontends with integrated workflows, not to explain how AWS Developer Tools provides the function to recognize the separation of build release deploy and tracing functions.

C:

That description belongs to Amazon SQS because sQS holds messages for consumers to process independently; it is used to decouple systems with durable asynchronous message queues, not to explain how AWS Developer Tools provides the function to recognize the separation of build release deploy and tracing functions.

Question 894

In a design comparison, Interface VPC endpoint is associated with the objective to reach supported services through private network interfaces in a subnet. For the distinct objective to resolve private domain names inside associated VPC networks, which option should be preferred?

  1. Internet gateway
  2. Private hosted zone
  3. Interface VPC endpoint
  4. AWS Direct Connect

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Private hosted zone addresses the new need to resolve private domain names inside associated VPC networks because Route 53 private hosted zones provide DNS answers for selected VPCs; Interface VPC endpoint supports the different existing task to reach supported services through private network interfaces in a subnet.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Internet gateway is intended to enable internet routing for resources in a VPC with suitable configuration because an internet gateway connects a VPC to the internet for eligible public addressing paths; in this design the new outcome is to resolve private domain names inside associated VPC networks, which calls for Private hosted zone rather than Internet gateway or the earlier Interface VPC endpoint.

C:

Interface VPC endpoint primarily supports the earlier need to reach supported services through private network interfaces in a subnet because privateLink-backed endpoints create private IP endpoints with associated security groups, but the new task is to resolve private domain names inside associated VPC networks; that is why Private hosted zone is preferable here.

D:

AWS Direct Connect is intended to establish dedicated private network connectivity from a site to AWS because direct Connect provides a dedicated network connection through supported locations; in this design the new outcome is to resolve private domain names inside associated VPC networks, which calls for Private hosted zone rather than AWS Direct Connect or the earlier Interface VPC endpoint.

Question 895

A cloud team wants to deploy supported web applications or container services without operating servers. It has considered AWS Lambda, whose main role is to execute event-triggered code without managing virtual servers. Which other selection is more tightly matched to the actual task?

  1. Amazon EC2
  2. AWS Lambda
  3. AWS App Runner
  4. Amazon ECR

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

AWS App Runner addresses the new need to deploy supported web applications or container services without operating servers because app Runner automates build or container deployment and scales supported web services; AWS Lambda supports the different existing task to execute event-triggered code without managing virtual servers.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Amazon EC2 is intended to operate virtual servers with explicit OS and instance management because EC2 provides configurable compute instances where customers manage guest OS and application software; in this design the new outcome is to deploy supported web applications or container services without operating servers, which calls for AWS App Runner rather than Amazon EC2 or the earlier AWS Lambda.

B:

AWS Lambda primarily supports the earlier need to execute event-triggered code without managing virtual servers because lambda runs functions in managed execution environments with service-defined execution constraints, but the new task is to deploy supported web applications or container services without operating servers; that is why AWS App Runner is preferable here.

D:

Amazon ECR is intended to store and distribute container images for deployment because eCR is a managed container image registry integrated with AWS deployment tooling; in this design the new outcome is to deploy supported web applications or container services without operating servers, which calls for AWS App Runner rather than Amazon ECR or the earlier AWS Lambda.

Question 896

A project owner needs a practical way to query supported data in S3 using serverless SQL. Which selection most closely aligns with that objective?

  1. Amazon Bedrock
  2. Amazon Comprehend
  3. Amazon Athena
  4. Amazon Transcribe

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Amazon Athena matches the goal to query supported data in S3 using serverless SQL because athena runs interactive SQL queries without provisioning a dedicated database server. It does not itself ingest a continuous live event stream. Amazon Comprehend is for the different objective to extract sentiment entities and other insights from text.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Amazon Bedrock addresses the separate need to build generative AI applications using foundation models through managed APIs because bedrock provides access to foundation models and tooling for generative AI solutions; it is not as direct as Amazon Athena for the actual requirement to query supported data in S3 using serverless SQL.

B:

Amazon Comprehend addresses the separate need to extract sentiment entities and other insights from text because comprehend provides managed natural-language processing APIs; it is not as direct as Amazon Athena for the actual requirement to query supported data in S3 using serverless SQL.

D:

Amazon Transcribe addresses the separate need to convert spoken audio into a text transcript because transcribe provides managed automatic speech recognition; it is not as direct as Amazon Athena for the actual requirement to query supported data in S3 using serverless SQL.

Question 897

In the deployment review, the team must address 2 distinct tasks: first, treat resource configurations as version-controlled declarative definitions; second, manage operational tasks across supported compute fleets. Select the TWO most suitable services or concepts. Choose TWO.

  1. AWS Systems Manager
  2. AWS CloudFormation change sets
  3. AWS service APIs
  4. AWS Service Catalog
  5. Infrastructure as code

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

AWS Systems Manager covers the listed need to manage operational tasks across supported compute fleets because systems Manager provides inventory, automation, patching and remote operational capabilities; it belongs in the keyed set alongside Infrastructure as code to treat resource configurations as version-controlled declarative definitions.

E:

Infrastructure as code covers the listed need to treat resource configurations as version-controlled declarative definitions because infrastructure as code makes deployments repeatable and reviewable through machine-readable files; it belongs in the keyed set alongside AWS Systems Manager to manage operational tasks across supported compute fleets.

Incorrect Answers

B:

AWS CloudFormation change sets addresses a different objective, to review proposed stack changes before executing them, because change sets preview resource modifications CloudFormation plans to make; the checklist instead requires the distinct outcomes to treat resource configurations as version-controlled declarative definitions; manage operational tasks across supported compute fleets.

C:

AWS service APIs addresses a different objective, to interact programmatically with AWS using supported service requests, because AWS APIs expose actions and resource operations through defined programmatic interfaces; the checklist instead requires the distinct outcomes to treat resource configurations as version-controlled declarative definitions; manage operational tasks across supported compute fleets.

D:

AWS Service Catalog addresses a different objective, to offer approved infrastructure products through governed self-service, because service Catalog lets administrators define centrally governed products users can launch; the checklist instead requires the distinct outcomes to treat resource configurations as version-controlled declarative definitions; manage operational tasks across supported compute fleets.

Question 898

A decision meeting distinguishes between two outcomes: provide managed cloud virtual desktop environments, and stream hosted desktop applications to end users. The first is handled using Amazon WorkSpaces. Which option directly supports the second?

  1. AWS IoT Core
  2. Amazon AppStream 2.0
  3. Amazon Cognito
  4. Amazon WorkSpaces

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Amazon AppStream 2.0 addresses the new need to stream hosted desktop applications to end users because appStream 2.0 streams supported applications through a browser or client; Amazon WorkSpaces supports the different existing task to provide managed cloud virtual desktop environments.

Incorrect Answers

A:

AWS IoT Core is intended to connect IoT devices securely to cloud applications and messaging because ioT Core provides managed device communication and integration; in this design the new outcome is to stream hosted desktop applications to end users, which calls for Amazon AppStream 2.0 rather than AWS IoT Core or the earlier Amazon WorkSpaces.

C:

Amazon Cognito is intended to provide sign-up sign-in and identity features for customer-facing applications because cognito supports application user directories and federation; in this design the new outcome is to stream hosted desktop applications to end users, which calls for Amazon AppStream 2.0 rather than Amazon Cognito or the earlier Amazon WorkSpaces.

D:

Amazon WorkSpaces primarily supports the earlier need to provide managed cloud virtual desktop environments because workSpaces delivers desktop computing to remote users, but the new task is to stream hosted desktop applications to end users; that is why Amazon AppStream 2.0 is preferable here.

Question 899

A platform engineering team wants to connect many VPCs and supported on-premises networks through a central hub without confusing it with an adjacent cloud capability. What is the best match?

  1. Gateway VPC endpoint
  2. Internet gateway
  3. AWS Client VPN
  4. AWS Transit Gateway

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

AWS Transit Gateway matches the goal to connect many VPCs and supported on-premises networks through a central hub because transit Gateway simplifies hub-and-spoke network connectivity at scale. It does not eliminate address overlap or the need for route design. AWS Client VPN is for the different objective to provide individual remote users with a managed VPN connection to AWS or attached networks.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Gateway VPC endpoint addresses the separate need to connect a VPC to supported Amazon S3 or DynamoDB services through route-table entries because gateway endpoints provide private service paths for S3 and DynamoDB; it is not as direct as AWS Transit Gateway for the actual requirement to connect many VPCs and supported on-premises networks through a central hub.

B:

Internet gateway addresses the separate need to enable internet routing for resources in a VPC with suitable configuration because an internet gateway connects a VPC to the internet for eligible public addressing paths; it is not as direct as AWS Transit Gateway for the actual requirement to connect many VPCs and supported on-premises networks through a central hub.

C:

AWS Client VPN addresses the separate need to provide individual remote users with a managed VPN connection to AWS or attached networks because client VPN is a client-based remote-access VPN service; it is not as direct as AWS Transit Gateway for the actual requirement to connect many VPCs and supported on-premises networks through a central hub.

Question 900

A team has chosen Availability Zone to separate redundant application components across isolated facilities within one Region. Which description explains the mechanism that makes this selection appropriate?

  1. Replicated tiers across separate AZs reduce dependence on a single facility group.
  2. Recovery exercises check replication, dependencies and traffic-routing procedures before a real incident.
  3. AWS service availability varies by Region and sometimes by instance family or feature.
  4. An Availability Zone is one or more discrete data centers with independent infrastructure in a Region.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Availability Zone meets the goal to separate redundant application components across isolated facilities within one Region because an Availability Zone is one or more discrete data centers with independent infrastructure in a Region. Multiple AZs help with facility-level failures without being geographically separate Regions; the question tests the operating mechanism of Availability Zone for the need to separate redundant application components across isolated facilities within one Region.

Incorrect Answers

A:

That description belongs to Multi-AZ application deployment because replicated tiers across separate AZs reduce dependence on a single facility group; it is used to survive a failure confined to one Availability Zone, not to explain how Availability Zone provides the function to separate redundant application components across isolated facilities within one Region.

B:

That description belongs to Regional disaster recovery tests because recovery exercises check replication, dependencies and traffic-routing procedures before a real incident; it is used to verify a workload can resume in its backup Region, not to explain how Availability Zone provides the function to separate redundant application components across isolated facilities within one Region.

C:

That description belongs to Regional service availability check because AWS service availability varies by Region and sometimes by instance family or feature; it is used to verify a particular offering is available in the chosen Region, not to explain how Availability Zone provides the function to separate redundant application components across isolated facilities within one Region.

AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner CLF-C02 Practice Tests