Question 860

A team has chosen Amazon S3 Inventory to generate lists of objects and associated metadata for analysis. Which description explains the mechanism that makes this selection appropriate?

  1. S3 is an object storage service for files and data blobs rather than mounted block devices.
  2. This capability is appropriate for data requiring regular access across multiple AZs.
  3. S3 Inventory produces scheduled reports about bucket objects and properties.
  4. Bucket policies are resource-based JSON permissions for supported S3 actions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Amazon S3 Inventory meets the goal to generate lists of objects and associated metadata for analysis because S3 Inventory produces scheduled reports about bucket objects and properties. It is not the same as continuous application log monitoring.

Incorrect Answers

A:

That description belongs to Amazon S3 because S3 is an object storage service for files and data blobs rather than mounted block devices; it is used to store durable objects and retrieve them by bucket and key, not to explain how Amazon S3 Inventory provides the function to generate lists of objects and associated metadata for analysis.

B:

That description belongs to Amazon S3 Standard because S3 Standard is appropriate for data requiring regular access across multiple AZs; it is used to serve frequently accessed objects with low-latency retrieval, not to explain how Amazon S3 Inventory provides the function to generate lists of objects and associated metadata for analysis.

D:

That description belongs to S3 bucket policy because bucket policies are resource-based JSON permissions for supported S3 actions; it is used to control allowed and denied access to an S3 bucket and its objects, not to explain how Amazon S3 Inventory provides the function to generate lists of objects and associated metadata for analysis.

Question 861

A solution uses Amazon Comprehend for the requirement to extract sentiment entities and other insights from text. Which operating behavior underlies that use?

  1. This capability provides managed natural-language processing APIs.
  2. This capability provides managed automatic speech recognition.
  3. This capability is a machine-translation service used by multilingual applications.
  4. Textract reads forms tables and text from supported document inputs.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Amazon Comprehend meets the goal to extract sentiment entities and other insights from text because comprehend provides managed natural-language processing APIs. It does not primarily convert speech waveforms into written transcripts.

Incorrect Answers

B:

That description belongs to Amazon Transcribe because transcribe provides managed automatic speech recognition; it is used to convert spoken audio into a text transcript, not to explain how Amazon Comprehend provides the function to extract sentiment entities and other insights from text.

C:

That description belongs to Amazon Translate because translate is a machine-translation service used by multilingual applications; it is used to translate text between supported human languages, not to explain how Amazon Comprehend provides the function to extract sentiment entities and other insights from text.

D:

That description belongs to Amazon Textract because textract reads forms tables and text from supported document inputs; it is used to extract printed and handwritten text and document structure, not to explain how Amazon Comprehend provides the function to extract sentiment entities and other insights from text.

Question 862

Engineers are documenting how NoSQL access-pattern design fulfills an objective to design a database around known key lookups and throughput patterns. Which technical explanation belongs in that document?

  1. DynamoDB data modeling focuses on partition keys indexes and predictable access paths.
  2. This capability automates selected relational database operations including backup and patching.
  3. RDS Multi-AZ options support failover when the primary or supporting infrastructure fails.
  4. Self-managing a database on EC2 leaves patching, backups and high availability largely to the customer.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

NoSQL access-pattern design meets the goal to design a database around known key lookups and throughput patterns because DynamoDB data modeling focuses on partition keys indexes and predictable access paths. It does not assume arbitrary relational joins are the primary query method.

Incorrect Answers

B:

That description belongs to Amazon RDS because RDS automates selected relational database operations including backup and patching; it is used to operate a managed relational database engine, not to explain how NoSQL access-pattern design provides the function to design a database around known key lookups and throughput patterns.

C:

That description belongs to RDS Multi-AZ configuration because RDS Multi-AZ options support failover when the primary or supporting infrastructure fails; it is used to improve database availability using a standby in another Availability Zone, not to explain how NoSQL access-pattern design provides the function to design a database around known key lookups and throughput patterns.

D:

That description belongs to Database on Amazon EC2 because self-managing a database on EC2 leaves patching, backups and high availability largely to the customer; it is used to retain direct control of database host OS and engine installation, not to explain how NoSQL access-pattern design provides the function to design a database around known key lookups and throughput patterns.

Question 863

A cloud team wants to execute event-triggered code without managing virtual servers. It has considered Amazon EC2, whose main role is to operate virtual servers with explicit OS and instance management. Which other selection is more tightly matched to the actual task?

  1. AWS Lambda
  2. AWS Batch
  3. Gateway Load Balancer
  4. Amazon EC2

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

AWS Lambda addresses the new need to execute event-triggered code without managing virtual servers because lambda runs functions in managed execution environments with service-defined execution constraints; Amazon EC2 supports the different existing task to operate virtual servers with explicit OS and instance management.

Incorrect Answers

B:

AWS Batch is intended to queue and execute batch computing jobs with managed scheduling because batch provisions and schedules compute capacity for job queues and compute environments; in this design the new outcome is to execute event-triggered code without managing virtual servers, which calls for AWS Lambda rather than AWS Batch or the earlier Amazon EC2.

C:

Gateway Load Balancer is intended to insert compatible virtual network appliances into traffic paths because gateway Load Balancer distributes flows across appliance targets for inspection or similar tasks; in this design the new outcome is to execute event-triggered code without managing virtual servers, which calls for AWS Lambda rather than Gateway Load Balancer or the earlier Amazon EC2.

D:

Amazon EC2 primarily supports the earlier need to operate virtual servers with explicit OS and instance management because EC2 provides configurable compute instances where customers manage guest OS and application software, but the new task is to execute event-triggered code without managing virtual servers; that is why AWS Lambda is preferable here.

Question 864

A team already uses Route 53 latency routing to answer DNS requests with an endpoint selected for lower network latency. It now must improve global network paths and health-based endpoint selection using anycast IPs, which is a separate requirement. What should it select for that new objective?

  1. AWS Direct Connect
  2. Route 53 latency routing
  3. Amazon VPC
  4. AWS Global Accelerator

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

AWS Global Accelerator addresses the new need to improve global network paths and health-based endpoint selection using anycast IPs because global Accelerator uses the AWS global network to route traffic to regional endpoints; Route 53 latency routing supports the different existing task to answer DNS requests with an endpoint selected for lower network latency.

Incorrect Answers

A:

AWS Direct Connect is intended to establish dedicated private network connectivity from a site to AWS because direct Connect provides a dedicated network connection through supported locations; in this design the new outcome is to improve global network paths and health-based endpoint selection using anycast IPs, which calls for AWS Global Accelerator rather than AWS Direct Connect or the earlier Route 53 latency routing.

B:

Route 53 latency routing primarily supports the earlier need to answer DNS requests with an endpoint selected for lower network latency because latency-based policies choose among configured Region records using AWS latency observations, but the new task is to improve global network paths and health-based endpoint selection using anycast IPs; that is why AWS Global Accelerator is preferable here.

C:

Amazon VPC is intended to create a logically isolated IP network for AWS resources because a VPC defines virtual networking boundaries and hosts configurable subnets and routing; in this design the new outcome is to improve global network paths and health-based endpoint selection using anycast IPs, which calls for AWS Global Accelerator rather than Amazon VPC or the earlier Route 53 latency routing.

Question 865

The workload already uses Amazon API Gateway to create a managed front door for application APIs. A second workstream needs to build and host web or mobile application frontends with integrated workflows. Which AWS choice fits the second workstream?

  1. AWS X-Ray
  2. AWS Amplify
  3. Amazon SES
  4. Amazon API Gateway

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

AWS Amplify addresses the new need to build and host web or mobile application frontends with integrated workflows because amplify provides frontend deployment and backend integrations for app teams; Amazon API Gateway supports the different existing task to create a managed front door for application APIs.

Incorrect Answers

A:

AWS X-Ray is intended to trace distributed requests through supported application components because x-Ray provides distributed tracing to help find latency and failure sources; in this design the new outcome is to build and host web or mobile application frontends with integrated workflows, which calls for AWS Amplify rather than AWS X-Ray or the earlier Amazon API Gateway.

C:

Amazon SES is intended to send transactional or bulk application email because sES provides managed email sending and receiving capabilities; in this design the new outcome is to build and host web or mobile application frontends with integrated workflows, which calls for AWS Amplify rather than Amazon SES or the earlier Amazon API Gateway.

D:

Amazon API Gateway primarily supports the earlier need to create a managed front door for application APIs because aPI Gateway exposes managed API endpoints with routing and controls, but the new task is to build and host web or mobile application frontends with integrated workflows; that is why AWS Amplify is preferable here.

Question 866

A decision meeting distinguishes between two outcomes: operate a managed relational database engine, and improve database availability using a standby in another Availability Zone. The first is handled using Amazon RDS. Which option directly supports the second?

  1. RDS read replica
  2. RDS Multi-AZ configuration
  3. Database on Amazon EC2
  4. Amazon RDS

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

RDS Multi-AZ configuration addresses the new need to improve database availability using a standby in another Availability Zone because RDS Multi-AZ options support failover when the primary or supporting infrastructure fails; Amazon RDS supports the different existing task to operate a managed relational database engine.

Incorrect Answers

A:

RDS read replica is intended to offload eligible read queries from a relational database primary because read replicas provide copies usable to serve read traffic with replication behavior; in this design the new outcome is to improve database availability using a standby in another Availability Zone, which calls for RDS Multi-AZ configuration rather than RDS read replica or the earlier Amazon RDS.

C:

Database on Amazon EC2 is intended to retain direct control of database host OS and engine installation because self-managing a database on EC2 leaves patching, backups and high availability largely to the customer; in this design the new outcome is to improve database availability using a standby in another Availability Zone, which calls for RDS Multi-AZ configuration rather than Database on Amazon EC2 or the earlier Amazon RDS.

D:

Amazon RDS primarily supports the earlier need to operate a managed relational database engine because RDS automates selected relational database operations including backup and patching, but the new task is to improve database availability using a standby in another Availability Zone; that is why RDS Multi-AZ configuration is preferable here.

Question 867

The solution currently handles its need to enforce supported WORM retention against object deletion or modification with Amazon S3 Object Lock. A new requirement is to upload very large objects as separately transmitted parts instead. Which service or principle addresses that different need?

  1. S3 multi-part upload
  2. S3 bucket policy
  3. Amazon S3 Inventory
  4. Amazon S3 Object Lock

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

S3 multi-part upload addresses the new need to upload very large objects as separately transmitted parts because Multi-part upload improves resilience and transfer management for large S3 objects; Amazon S3 Object Lock supports the different existing task to enforce supported WORM retention against object deletion or modification.

Incorrect Answers

B:

S3 bucket policy is intended to control allowed and denied access to an S3 bucket and its objects because bucket policies are resource-based JSON permissions for supported S3 actions; in this design the new outcome is to upload very large objects as separately transmitted parts, which calls for S3 multi-part upload rather than S3 bucket policy or the earlier Amazon S3 Object Lock.

C:

Amazon S3 Inventory is intended to generate lists of objects and associated metadata for analysis because S3 Inventory produces scheduled reports about bucket objects and properties; in this design the new outcome is to upload very large objects as separately transmitted parts, which calls for S3 multi-part upload rather than Amazon S3 Inventory or the earlier Amazon S3 Object Lock.

D:

Amazon S3 Object Lock primarily supports the earlier need to enforce supported WORM retention against object deletion or modification because object Lock supports retention modes and legal holds on eligible S3 object versions, but the new task is to upload very large objects as separately transmitted parts; that is why S3 multi-part upload is preferable here.

Question 868

A solution has 3 separate requirements: first, reach supported services through private network interfaces in a subnet; second, distinguish outbound address translation from direct public routing; third, select whether connection return traffic needs independent explicit rules. Which THREE choices correspond most directly to these needs? Choose THREE.

  1. NAT versus internet gateway
  2. VPC endpoint
  3. NAT gateway
  4. Interface VPC endpoint
  5. Stateless versus stateful filtering
  6. Route table

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

NAT versus internet gateway covers the listed need to distinguish outbound address translation from direct public routing because NAT gateways enable private egress; internet gateways provide the VPC's internet attachment; it belongs in the keyed set alongside Interface VPC endpoint to reach supported services through private network interfaces in a subnet and Stateless versus stateful filtering to select whether connection return traffic needs independent explicit rules.

D:

Interface VPC endpoint covers the listed need to reach supported services through private network interfaces in a subnet because privateLink-backed endpoints create private IP endpoints with associated security groups; it belongs in the keyed set alongside NAT versus internet gateway to distinguish outbound address translation from direct public routing and Stateless versus stateful filtering to select whether connection return traffic needs independent explicit rules.

E:

Stateless versus stateful filtering covers the listed need to select whether connection return traffic needs independent explicit rules because security groups track allowed connections while network ACLs evaluate both directions without state; it belongs in the keyed set alongside Interface VPC endpoint to reach supported services through private network interfaces in a subnet and NAT versus internet gateway to distinguish outbound address translation from direct public routing.

Incorrect Answers

B:

VPC endpoint addresses a different objective, to connect supported VPC workloads privately to selected AWS services, because VPC endpoints provide service connectivity without requiring a public internet path; the checklist instead requires the distinct outcomes to reach supported services through private network interfaces in a subnet; distinguish outbound address translation from direct public routing; select whether connection return traffic needs independent explicit rules.

C:

NAT gateway addresses a different objective, to let private subnet resources initiate eligible outbound internet connections, because a NAT gateway translates egress traffic when appropriate routes are configured; the checklist instead requires the distinct outcomes to reach supported services through private network interfaces in a subnet; distinguish outbound address translation from direct public routing; select whether connection return traffic needs independent explicit rules.

F:

Route table addresses a different objective, to decide where traffic from a subnet should be directed, because VPC route tables contain destination-prefix routing entries for network traffic; the checklist instead requires the distinct outcomes to reach supported services through private network interfaces in a subnet; distinguish outbound address translation from direct public routing; select whether connection return traffic needs independent explicit rules.

Question 869

While reviewing a design, an architect identifies a gap: the workload needs to execute event-triggered code without managing virtual servers. Which option closes that gap most directly?

  1. Amazon EC2
  2. Application Load Balancer
  3. AWS Lambda
  4. AWS Fargate

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

AWS Lambda matches the goal to execute event-triggered code without managing virtual servers because lambda runs functions in managed execution environments with service-defined execution constraints. It is designed for functions rather than long-running self-managed operating systems. Application Load Balancer is for the different objective to route HTTP and HTTPS requests using application-layer rules.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Amazon EC2 addresses the separate need to operate virtual servers with explicit OS and instance management because EC2 provides configurable compute instances where customers manage guest OS and application software; it is not as direct as AWS Lambda for the actual requirement to execute event-triggered code without managing virtual servers.

B:

Application Load Balancer addresses the separate need to route HTTP and HTTPS requests using application-layer rules because aLB supports layer 7 routing by host names or URL paths to target groups; it is not as direct as AWS Lambda for the actual requirement to execute event-triggered code without managing virtual servers.

D:

AWS Fargate addresses the separate need to run container tasks without managing EC2 container hosts because fargate supplies serverless compute for supported ECS and EKS workloads; it is not as direct as AWS Lambda for the actual requirement to execute event-triggered code without managing virtual servers.

Question 870

In a design comparison, AWS CloudFormation is associated with the objective to recreate multi-resource infrastructure from versioned templates. For the distinct objective to run AWS-managed infrastructure at a customer premises for local requirements, which option should be preferred?

  1. AWS CLI
  2. AWS CloudFormation
  3. AWS Cloud Development Kit (AWS CDK)
  4. AWS Outposts

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

AWS Outposts addresses the new need to run AWS-managed infrastructure at a customer premises for local requirements because outposts extends selected AWS infrastructure and services to supported on-premises locations; AWS CloudFormation supports the different existing task to recreate multi-resource infrastructure from versioned templates.

Incorrect Answers

A:

AWS CLI is intended to run scripted AWS API operations from shell commands because the AWS Command Line Interface exposes AWS service operations to terminals and automation; in this design the new outcome is to run AWS-managed infrastructure at a customer premises for local requirements, which calls for AWS Outposts rather than AWS CLI or the earlier AWS CloudFormation.

B:

AWS CloudFormation primarily supports the earlier need to recreate multi-resource infrastructure from versioned templates because cloudFormation models resources as stacks and applies managed creation and update operations, but the new task is to run AWS-managed infrastructure at a customer premises for local requirements; that is why AWS Outposts is preferable here.

C:

AWS Cloud Development Kit (AWS CDK) is intended to define AWS infrastructure using familiar programming languages because AWS CDK constructs synthesize infrastructure definitions for deployment through CloudFormation; in this design the new outcome is to run AWS-managed infrastructure at a customer premises for local requirements, which calls for AWS Outposts rather than AWS Cloud Development Kit (AWS CDK) or the earlier AWS CloudFormation.

AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner CLF-C02 Practice Tests