Question 610

A private web subnet has an outbound subnet network ACL that allows TCP requests to an external HTTPS service, but response packets are dropped after the TCP handshake starts. The network ACL has no outbound ephemeral-port restriction; which return-path change should the engineer investigate?

  1. Permit inbound return TCP packets to the clients' ephemeral destination-port range in the subnet network ACL, with rules scoped to the expected source ranges
  2. Add an inbound TCP 443 rule only, because all HTTPS response packets have destination port 443
  3. Enable automatic connection tracking on the network ACL instead of adding a rule
  4. Enable Route 53 query logging to automatically open TCP return paths

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Network ACLs are stateless, so allowing the initial outbound HTTPS request does not automatically authorize the response packets. The returning TCP packets use the client ephemeral port as their destination and require an appropriate inbound allow rule.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Port 443 is the destination on the external server for the initial request. Replies travel back toward the initiating client ephemeral port, so an inbound 443-only rule will not match those responses.

C:

Network ACLs do not maintain connection state. The ability of security groups to allow tracked return traffic does not eliminate the requirement for explicit ACL rules in both packet directions.

D:

DNS query logs provide diagnostic records for name lookups and are not network-layer allow rules. They cannot change how stateless ACLs evaluate response packets.

Question 611

A peered EC2 application uses the other VPC's public DNS name and needs it to resolve to the peer's private address where supported. Which change is the most appropriate?

  1. Accept the VPC peering connection in the peer account
  2. Add the peer CIDR route to the peering connection in relevant VPC subnet route tables
  3. Enable the VPC peering DNS resolution options
  4. Renumber one VPC or adopt a suitable endpoint-based connectivity pattern

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

This configuration allows qualifying public hostname resolution across peered VPCs to return private addresses; this does not replace Route 53 private hosted-zone association for arbitrary private names, so it delivers private DNS resolution for peered instance hostnames under the stated constraints.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This alternative activates the permitted one-to-one peering relationship; route entries cannot use an unaccepted peering connection to pass packets, so it addresses approved peering connection lifecycle rather than the required private DNS resolution for peered instance hostnames.

B:

Although this setting forwards private destination packets over the peer link, the peer VPC must also have an appropriate return route; this concerns source subnet reachability through VPC peering, not the specified private DNS resolution for peered instance hostnames.

D:

This approach avoids the overlapping-CIDR restriction on VPC peering; adding more-specific routes cannot make an unsupported overlapping peering connection valid, which helps with viable connectivity with conflicting network address plans instead of delivering private DNS resolution for peered instance hostnames.

Question 612

A Transit Gateway route domain has two overlapping VPC prefixes that cannot be advertised unambiguously to the same routing table. What is the most suitable design or configuration?

  1. Use PrivateLink to expose the specific service without merging full VPC routes
  2. Translate one side's addresses through a planned NAT or proxy architecture
  3. Separate the attachments into route tables or redesign the address plan
  4. Associate a secondary IPv4 CIDR block with the VPC

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

With this choice, the selected action avoids installing conflicting attachment reachability into one shared routing context; a broad route table cannot infer which identical destination CIDR is intended, providing unambiguous routing for overlapping VPC blocks for the network described.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This approach provides endpoint-based application reachability without requiring nonoverlapping peer CIDRs; VPC peering disallows overlapping CIDR blocks, which helps with application access between overlapping address spaces instead of delivering unambiguous routing for overlapping VPC blocks.

B:

This alternative changes address presentation to avoid ambiguous routing across overlapping networks; an endpoint-service pattern might fit one API but not arbitrary protocols, so it addresses generalized connectivity through address translation rather than the required unambiguous routing for overlapping VPC blocks.

D:

The proposed action adds an additional valid VPC address range for subnet allocation; CIDR association alone does not create subnets or migrate existing interfaces, supporting address-pool expansion without replacing the original range but leaving unambiguous routing for overlapping VPC blocks unmet.

Question 613

A customer orders a hosted AWS Direct Connect connection from a partner but later needs a dedicated physical 10-Gbps AWS port with full control of its direct physical cross-connect. Which change meets the requirement?

  1. Convert the hosted virtual interface into a Direct Connect LAG without provisioning any new physical connection
  2. Order a dedicated Direct Connect connection and complete the corresponding facility cross-connect process
  3. Increase the BGP autonomous system number to 10 Gbps on the existing hosted connection
  4. Create a public virtual interface on the hosted connection to reserve an AWS physical port

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A dedicated connection is a physical port provisioned for the customer and includes the AWS facility authorization process. Hosted connections supplied by a partner are not converted into dedicated AWS physical ports by changing a virtual interface.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A LAG aggregates eligible dedicated connections on the same AWS endpoint. It does not transform a partner-provided hosted connection into a customer-managed physical port.

C:

An ASN is a routing identifier, not a bandwidth setting or an indication of who manages the physical port. Changing the ASN cannot alter the connection ownership model.

D:

A public VIF affects routing to AWS public service addresses and can be used on supported connections, but it does not provision a new dedicated physical cross-connect.

Question 614

An enterprise must apply an approved WAF rule set to every internet-facing ALB in selected OUs. What is the best next configuration decision?

  1. Configure supported AWS Firewall Manager Network Firewall policies
  2. Review Firewall Manager policy compliance findings with read-only access
  3. Deploy a Firewall Manager WAF policy with scoped resources
  4. Use AWS Firewall Manager security-group policies across designated accounts

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

This configuration manages compatible web ACL protections across organization members; merely sharing a web ACL object does not attach it to eligible ALBs, so it delivers uniform application firewall baselines under the stated constraints.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Although this setting coordinates firewall resources and policies across AWS accounts, local-only firewall rules lack organization-level orchestration; this concerns centrally managed VPC network inspection governance, not the specified uniform application firewall baselines.

B:

The proposed action separates assessment of centrally managed protection from remediation authority; a monitoring role need not have broad permissions to edit every rule, supporting oversight of firewall policy compliance but leaving uniform application firewall baselines unmet.

D:

This alternative centrally evaluates and manages eligible security-group rule posture; a single EC2 console audit cannot cover newly created accounts consistently, so it addresses organization-scale detection of overly broad access rather than the required uniform application firewall baselines.

Question 615

An inline firewall cluster has two AZs, and traffic is discarded when reverse flows reach a different appliance zone. What should the network specialist configure?

  1. Correct the return route so both sides use the same stateful inspection chain
  2. Deploy Gateway Load Balancer and endpoint service routing
  3. Insert the inspection attachment into TGW route tables and return subnet routes
  4. Deploy AWS Network Firewall endpoints and steer subnet routes through them
  5. Turn on TGW appliance mode on the inspection VPC attachment

Explanation

Correct Answer

E:

This configuration maintains flow-consistent AZ selection for the inspection path; security-group changes do not fix reverse-flow placement within a stateful fleet, so it delivers stateful firewall session symmetry across AZs under the stated constraints.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This alternative ensures state tracking sees both directions of the session; policy correctness alone cannot repair asymmetric data-plane forwarding, so it addresses symmetric routed firewall traversal rather than the required stateful firewall session symmetry across AZs.

B:

Although this setting supplies GENEVE-based traffic distribution to supported appliances, a conventional NLB does not implement the same service-insertion endpoint path; this concerns scaled transparent inspection with third-party devices, not the specified stateful firewall session symmetry across AZs.

C:

The proposed action makes the central appliance a required hop for both directions of permitted flows; an attached firewall without appropriate transit route steering sees no packets, supporting routed inline inspection between spokes but leaving stateful firewall session symmetry across AZs unmet.

D:

This approach inspects stateful traffic according to configured rule groups; endpoint deployment alone does not redirect workload routing, which helps with managed policy-based network filtering at a central hop instead of delivering stateful firewall session symmetry across AZs.

Question 616

Several hundred VPCs need a durable, centrally queryable archive of flow records. What is the most suitable design or configuration?

  1. Use CloudFront real-time logging to an appropriate streaming destination
  2. Build a centralized analysis pipeline using S3, Athena, and appropriate partitions
  3. Apply restrictive bucket access and suitable S3 retention or Object Lock controls
  4. Configure cross-account flow log delivery to a governed S3 logging destination

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

This configuration stores standardized network-flow metadata beyond individual workload accounts; ad hoc per-instance logging cannot provide consistent coverage, so it delivers centralized multi-account traffic retention under the stated constraints.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This approach delivers selected viewer-request fields with low latency to consumers; traditional access-log delivery is not a low-latency event stream, which helps with timely CDN security request evidence instead of delivering centralized multi-account traffic retention.

B:

This alternative queries stored audit and flow data at organization scale; a single CloudWatch widget does not join historical raw records by itself, so it addresses scalable investigation across multiple network log sources rather than the required centralized multi-account traffic retention.

C:

Although this setting protects stored audit evidence against premature or unauthorized removal, encryption at rest does not itself prohibit deletion of encrypted log objects; this concerns policy-enforced log archive immutability, not the specified centralized multi-account traffic retention.

Question 617

An EKS deployment needs pod IPs registered directly to an ALB target group rather than exposing node ports. Which change is the most appropriate?

  1. Use AWS Load Balancer Controller IP target mode
  2. Scale the registered compute service using a suitable Auto Scaling policy
  3. Use supported AWS Load Balancer Controller Service annotations and configuration
  4. Install and configure the AWS Load Balancer Controller for ALB Ingress

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

With this choice, the selected action registers eligible Kubernetes pod addresses for direct target routing; instance target mode instead routes through worker node targets and NodePorts, providing direct ALB-to-pod target registration for the network described.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This approach adds application targets in response to capacity or demand metrics; enlarging the load balancer alone does not create new workers, which helps with backend capacity scaling behind the load balancer instead of delivering direct ALB-to-pod target registration.

C:

This alternative reconciles Kubernetes Service resources into network load balancing settings; an Ingress-only ALB pattern targets HTTP routing instead, so it addresses managed TCP Service ingress from Kubernetes rather than the required direct ALB-to-pod target registration.

D:

Although this setting reconciles Kubernetes Ingress definitions into supported AWS load-balancing resources, the relevant IAM permissions and controller installation must already exist; this concerns automated ALB integration for Kubernetes ingress, not the specified direct ALB-to-pod target registration.

Question 618

A global service needs to shift all new accelerator traffic away from a Region temporarily during a planned upgrade. How should this network requirement be implemented?

  1. Configure Global Accelerator client affinity by source IP
  2. Use Global Accelerator with UDP-capable endpoints
  3. Configure an appropriate accelerator endpoint health check for the application service
  4. Set the Global Accelerator traffic dial for that Region's endpoint group to zero

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The approach controls the fraction of traffic sent to an endpoint group by Region; the change affects new routing decisions rather than draining an established application connection by force, directly enabling region-wide traffic evacuation during maintenance in this situation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Although this setting maintains endpoint affinity based on the client IP rather than independently distributing every flow, affinity may reduce balancing flexibility and is not an application session store; this concerns endpoint consistency across a client's connections, not the specified region-wide traffic evacuation during maintenance.

B:

The proposed action transports supported UDP flows using AWS's global anycast ingress addresses; a TCP-only application gateway would not preserve the UDP transport requirement, supporting globally available entry for UDP application traffic but leaving region-wide traffic evacuation during maintenance unmet.

C:

This approach judges endpoint availability using supported application or transport health observations; an ICMP reply does not demonstrate that the actual listener or health path is healthy, which helps with routing only to endpoints that can serve the workload instead of delivering region-wide traffic evacuation during maintenance.

Question 619

Development VPCs may access shared patching services but must not establish routes into production databases. What is the most suitable design or configuration?

  1. Place the instances in private subnets without an IGW route and supply only approved endpoints
  2. Separate network administrative IAM roles from application deployment IAM roles
  3. Introduce a routed inspection VPC with Transit Gateway and stateful firewall insertion
  4. Use separate Transit Gateway route tables with selective shared-services propagation

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

This configuration limits transitive reachability according to the entering attachment's routing domain; all-spoke propagation into one table would expose paths not needed by developers, so it delivers environment-isolated shared-network transit under the stated constraints.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This alternative avoids direct inbound and outbound public paths through the subnet routing design; a public IP association alone does not override an absent internet gateway route, so it addresses isolated workload network placement rather than the required environment-isolated shared-network transit.

B:

Although this setting constrains control-plane authority over shared network resources, subnet participation does not imply permission to rewrite central routes; this concerns least-privilege tenant administration in shared networks, not the specified environment-isolated shared-network transit.

C:

The proposed action steers inter-VPC traffic through approved inspection before delivery; security groups on each workload do not provide central packet inspection visibility, supporting enforced cross-VPC inspection and segmentation but leaving environment-isolated shared-network transit unmet.

Question 620

A network dashboard must alert on degraded VPN tunnel state, track ALB backend processing problems, and detect Direct Connect link-state transitions. Which metric groups meet these requirements? Choose THREE.

  1. Compare time-aligned service metrics with CloudTrail change records
  2. Alarm on per-tunnel VPN TunnelState metrics in CloudWatch
  3. Create a CloudWatch alarm on the relevant firewall or derived metric
  4. Include Direct Connect ConnectionState and appropriate error counters
  5. Examine TargetResponseTime and target HTTP code CloudWatch metrics

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

This component evaluates AWS-provided tunnel state against alert conditions; an aggregate monthly data-transfer chart would not identify which tunnel dropped, contributing early degraded-resiliency notification to the combined requirement for early degraded-resiliency notification and quantitative load-balancer-to-backend performance diagnosis and observability of hybrid physical or connection faults.

D:

This component tracks link state independently of the amount of traffic transferred; low throughput can mean idle workloads, not necessarily a failed circuit, contributing observability of hybrid physical or connection faults to the combined requirement for early degraded-resiliency notification and quantitative load-balancer-to-backend performance diagnosis and observability of hybrid physical or connection faults.

E:

This component distinguishes slow target processing and target-generated error rates; front-end DNS TTL values do not explain target application latency, contributing quantitative load-balancer-to-backend performance diagnosis to the combined requirement for early degraded-resiliency notification and quantitative load-balancer-to-backend performance diagnosis and observability of hybrid physical or connection faults.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This approach combines operational signal timing with configuration mutation history; checking only current route tables omits the event that triggered the change, which helps with change-correlated network incident diagnosis instead of delivering early degraded-resiliency notification and quantitative load-balancer-to-backend performance diagnosis and observability of hybrid physical or connection faults.

C:

Although this setting applies a threshold and evaluation window to a measured security signal, CloudWatch dashboards show data but are not themselves notification rules; this concerns automated drop-rate anomaly alerting, not the specified early degraded-resiliency notification and quantitative load-balancer-to-backend performance diagnosis and observability of hybrid physical or connection faults.

AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Practice Tests