ACFE CFE - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes (Certified Fraud Examiner - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes) Practice Test 90

Question 890

For a review of occupancy-misrepresented mortgage, which evidence-based warning sign is the most specific?

  1. Income evidence conflicts with independent employer or tax records.
  2. Funding, occupancy and beneficial control point to a party other than the borrower of record.
  3. Lease listings and other residence records contradict the declared occupancy.
  4. Appraisal assumptions diverge from nearby verified comparable transactions.
  5. Onboarding identity records fail independent validation and the account has rapid pass-through activity.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

This observation is a pertinent indicator of Occupancy-misrepresented mortgage because misstated intended use can improperly obtain lending terms reserved for a primary residence. The practical corroborating procedure is to compare application occupancy statements with objective property-use evidence; the indicator by itself does not establish intent or error.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed observation fits Falsified borrower income, where borrower misrepresentation distorts credit assessment even before any default, rather than the particular mechanism in Occupancy-misrepresented mortgage. Unlike the clue for Falsified borrower income, the more directly related indicator for Occupancy-misrepresented mortgage is this: Lease listings and other residence records contradict the declared occupancy.

B:

The proposed observation fits Mortgage straw-buyer scheme, where a nominal applicant conceals the real party controlling the property and borrowing transaction, rather than the particular mechanism in Occupancy-misrepresented mortgage. Unlike the clue for Mortgage straw-buyer scheme, the more directly related indicator for Occupancy-misrepresented mortgage is this: Lease listings and other residence records contradict the declared occupancy.

D:

The proposed observation fits Inflated real estate appraisal, where artificial collateral values lead lenders to advance more credit than the asset justifies, rather than the particular mechanism in Occupancy-misrepresented mortgage. Unlike the clue for Inflated real estate appraisal, the more directly related indicator for Occupancy-misrepresented mortgage is this: Lease listings and other residence records contradict the declared occupancy.

E:

The proposed observation fits Fraudulent new bank account, where the newly created account is established under false identity to receive or move illicit proceeds, rather than the particular mechanism in Occupancy-misrepresented mortgage. Unlike the clue for Fraudulent new bank account, the more directly related indicator for Occupancy-misrepresented mortgage is this: Lease listings and other residence records contradict the declared occupancy.

Question 891

Two separate review files raise different issues. File A: A retailer includes goods owned by suppliers and nonexistent units in its closing inventory figures. File B: A controller does not disclose a significant transaction with an entity controlled by the chief executive. Which pairing accurately classifies both files?

  1. File A: Inflated year-end inventory; File B: Unrecorded accrued liabilities.
  2. File A: Inflated year-end inventory; File B: Omitted related-party disclosure.
  3. File A: Omitted related-party disclosure; File B: Inflated year-end inventory.
  4. File A: Fictitious sales entries; File B: Omitted related-party disclosure.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

File A is Inflated year-end inventory because overstated ending inventory usually understates cost of goods sold and inflates earnings, while File B is Omitted related-party disclosure because even when amounts are recorded, withholding material relationship information can mislead statement users. The evidence chains differ: for File A, reviewers should perform independent counts and test ownership and valuation of selected stock; for File B, they should map beneficial ownership and compare transactions with related-party disclosure requirements.

Incorrect Answers

A:

File B is misidentified as Unrecorded accrued liabilities instead of Omitted related-party disclosure. With the proposed pairing Inflated year-end inventory / Unrecorded accrued liabilities, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that warehouse counts and ownership terms disagree with inventory listings, whereas File B shows that ownership records show links between management and an important counterparty. For these Inflated year-end inventory and Omitted related-party disclosure files, choosing the pair Inflated year-end inventory / Unrecorded accrued liabilities would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

C:

File A is misidentified as Omitted related-party disclosure instead of Inflated year-end inventory; File B is misidentified as Inflated year-end inventory instead of Omitted related-party disclosure. With the proposed pairing Omitted related-party disclosure / Inflated year-end inventory, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that warehouse counts and ownership terms disagree with inventory listings, whereas File B shows that ownership records show links between management and an important counterparty. For these Inflated year-end inventory and Omitted related-party disclosure files, choosing the pair Omitted related-party disclosure / Inflated year-end inventory would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

D:

File A is misidentified as Fictitious sales entries instead of Inflated year-end inventory. With the proposed pairing Fictitious sales entries / Omitted related-party disclosure, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that warehouse counts and ownership terms disagree with inventory listings, whereas File B shows that ownership records show links between management and an important counterparty. For these Inflated year-end inventory and Omitted related-party disclosure files, choosing the pair Fictitious sales entries / Omitted related-party disclosure would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

Question 892

Reviewers flag a possible self-propagating network worm issue. Their preliminary finding is: Multiple hosts develop the same exploit-driven processes in rapid succession. Which test would best confirm or refute the concern?

  1. Analyze request patterns, device reputation and common command signatures.
  2. Analyze lateral network connections and common exploit artifacts.
  3. Correlate malware telemetry, credential access and session-token reuse.
  4. Inspect extension inventory, permissions and network destinations.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

For the Self-propagating network worm concern, the procedure tests source evidence behind this observation: Multiple hosts develop the same exploit-driven processes in rapid succession. This matters because a worm propagates autonomously; a conventional virus generally attaches to a host file or program; independent corroboration is necessary before accepting any conclusion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This comparison primarily addresses Botnet-enabled account attacks, in which a botnet coordinates compromised machines to perform automated abuse at scale; because the present question instead concerns Self-propagating network worm, reviewers should analyze lateral network connections and common exploit artifacts rather than apply a check designed for Botnet-enabled account attacks.

C:

This comparison primarily addresses Infostealer browser credential theft, in which infostealers harvest authentication secrets for later impersonation and account abuse; because the present question instead concerns Self-propagating network worm, reviewers should analyze lateral network connections and common exploit artifacts rather than apply a check designed for Infostealer browser credential theft.

D:

This comparison primarily addresses Malicious browser extension, in which browser extensions can misuse broad page-access permissions without a classic email attachment; because the present question instead concerns Self-propagating network worm, reviewers should analyze lateral network connections and common exploit artifacts rather than apply a check designed for Malicious browser extension.

Question 893

Two separate review files raise different issues. File A: A contractor submits the same payroll expense against two separately funded government projects. File B: An inspector approves a bridge repair as meeting contract standards despite undisclosed material substitution. Which pairing accurately classifies both files?

  1. File A: Double-charged public grant costs; File B: Substandard public works certification.
  2. File A: Substandard public works certification; File B: Double-charged public grant costs.
  3. File A: Politically directed benefit awards; File B: Substandard public works certification.
  4. File A: Double-charged public grant costs; File B: Ghost public-assistance beneficiaries.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

File A is Double-charged public grant costs because a real cost becomes fraudulent when recovered more than once from restricted funding sources, while File B is Substandard public works certification because taxpayer money pays for specifications that were not actually met. The evidence chains differ: for File A, reviewers should reconcile employee time allocation and invoice support across grants; for File B, they should compare engineering test results, supplier records and acceptance approvals.

Incorrect Answers

B:

File A is misidentified as Substandard public works certification instead of Double-charged public grant costs; File B is misidentified as Double-charged public grant costs instead of Substandard public works certification. With the proposed pairing Substandard public works certification / Double-charged public grant costs, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that identical time entries and payroll identifiers appear in multiple reimbursement requests, whereas File B shows that independent materials tests disagree with approved completion certificates. For these Double-charged public grant costs and Substandard public works certification files, choosing the pair Substandard public works certification / Double-charged public grant costs would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

C:

File A is misidentified as Politically directed benefit awards instead of Double-charged public grant costs. With the proposed pairing Politically directed benefit awards / Substandard public works certification, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that identical time entries and payroll identifiers appear in multiple reimbursement requests, whereas File B shows that independent materials tests disagree with approved completion certificates. For these Double-charged public grant costs and Substandard public works certification files, choosing the pair Politically directed benefit awards / Substandard public works certification would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

D:

File B is misidentified as Ghost public-assistance beneficiaries instead of Substandard public works certification. With the proposed pairing Double-charged public grant costs / Ghost public-assistance beneficiaries, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that identical time entries and payroll identifiers appear in multiple reimbursement requests, whereas File B shows that independent materials tests disagree with approved completion certificates. For these Double-charged public grant costs and Substandard public works certification files, choosing the pair Double-charged public grant costs / Ghost public-assistance beneficiaries would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

Question 894

Control designers are focusing on the mechanism behind peer-to-peer payment impostor: The victim may authorize the transfer under deception rather than lose funds through stolen credentials. Which measure best limits that opportunity?

  1. Use risk-based customer authentication and fulfillment fraud screening.
  2. Protect public payment codes against tampering and display verified payee names.
  3. Use tamper inspections and properly implemented EMV transaction validation.
  4. Educate users to verify urgent payment requests through known channels.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The control directly addresses the failure point in Peer-to-peer payment impostor, since the victim may authorize the transfer under deception rather than lose funds through stolen credentials. A subsequent independent review could independently verify the claimed requester and review recipient-account history to identify exceptions that bypassed the safeguard.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Card-not-present shopping fraud rather than Peer-to-peer payment impostor, because remote payment misuse exploits card credentials without requiring face-to-face card presentation. Unlike the control for Card-not-present shopping fraud, the more direct design for Peer-to-peer payment impostor is to educate users to verify urgent payment requests through known channels; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

B:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Fraudulent merchant QR redirect rather than Peer-to-peer payment impostor, because payment redirection changes the destination encoded in a legitimate-looking payment prompt. Unlike the control for Fraudulent merchant QR redirect, the more direct design for Peer-to-peer payment impostor is to educate users to verify urgent payment requests through known channels; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

C:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Chip-card shimming rather than Peer-to-peer payment impostor, because a shim targets information in the chip-card interface; chip transaction data alone does not necessarily permit cloning a valid chip. Unlike the control for Chip-card shimming, the more direct design for Peer-to-peer payment impostor is to educate users to verify urgent payment requests through known channels; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

Question 895

The monitoring team needs an observable indicator of falsified borrower income. Which signal aligns most closely with the risk?

  1. Onboarding identity records fail independent validation and the account has rapid pass-through activity.
  2. Lease listings and other residence records contradict the declared occupancy.
  3. New device sessions and unfamiliar recipients appear without the customer's authorization.
  4. Income evidence conflicts with independent employer or tax records.
  5. Funding, occupancy and beneficial control point to a party other than the borrower of record.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

This observation is a pertinent indicator of Falsified borrower income because borrower misrepresentation distorts credit assessment even before any default. The practical corroborating procedure is to verify stated earnings directly from reliable third-party employment records; the indicator by itself does not establish intent or error.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed observation fits Fraudulent new bank account, where the newly created account is established under false identity to receive or move illicit proceeds, rather than the particular mechanism in Falsified borrower income. Unlike the clue for Fraudulent new bank account, the more directly related indicator for Falsified borrower income is this: Income evidence conflicts with independent employer or tax records.

B:

The proposed observation fits Occupancy-misrepresented mortgage, where misstated intended use can improperly obtain lending terms reserved for a primary residence, rather than the particular mechanism in Falsified borrower income. Unlike the clue for Occupancy-misrepresented mortgage, the more directly related indicator for Falsified borrower income is this: Income evidence conflicts with independent employer or tax records.

C:

The proposed observation fits Financial-account takeover, where the account is legitimate but control of its credentials or session has been stolen, rather than the particular mechanism in Falsified borrower income. Unlike the clue for Financial-account takeover, the more directly related indicator for Falsified borrower income is this: Income evidence conflicts with independent employer or tax records.

E:

The proposed observation fits Mortgage straw-buyer scheme, where a nominal applicant conceals the real party controlling the property and borrowing transaction, rather than the particular mechanism in Falsified borrower income. Unlike the clue for Mortgage straw-buyer scheme, the more directly related indicator for Falsified borrower income is this: Income evidence conflicts with independent employer or tax records.

Question 896

Two separate review files raise different issues. File A: A manager approves recurring invoices for advisory work that no one can substantiate. File B: A purchaser divides one acquisition into several invoices below a delegated approval limit. Which pairing accurately classifies both files?

  1. File A: Phantom consulting fees; File B: Duplicate vendor-invoice payment.
  2. File A: Unreceived goods billing; File B: Split procurement invoices.
  3. File A: Phantom consulting fees; File B: Split procurement invoices.
  4. File A: Split procurement invoices; File B: Phantom consulting fees.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

File A is Phantom consulting fees because fabricated intangible services can be billed without the physical receiving evidence used for goods, while File B is Split procurement invoices because splitting evades approval controls that would apply to the whole purchase. The evidence chains differ: for File A, reviewers should corroborate contract deliverables with employees and independent project evidence; for File B, they should aggregate related purchases by supplier, requester and time window.

Incorrect Answers

A:

File B is misidentified as Duplicate vendor-invoice payment instead of Split procurement invoices. With the proposed pairing Phantom consulting fees / Duplicate vendor-invoice payment, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that payments recur despite missing work products, timesheets or meeting records, whereas File B shows that same-day orders to one vendor add up to a larger unapproved purchase. For these Phantom consulting fees and Split procurement invoices files, choosing the pair Phantom consulting fees / Duplicate vendor-invoice payment would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

B:

File A is misidentified as Unreceived goods billing instead of Phantom consulting fees. With the proposed pairing Unreceived goods billing / Split procurement invoices, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that payments recur despite missing work products, timesheets or meeting records, whereas File B shows that same-day orders to one vendor add up to a larger unapproved purchase. For these Phantom consulting fees and Split procurement invoices files, choosing the pair Unreceived goods billing / Split procurement invoices would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

D:

File A is misidentified as Split procurement invoices instead of Phantom consulting fees; File B is misidentified as Phantom consulting fees instead of Split procurement invoices. With the proposed pairing Split procurement invoices / Phantom consulting fees, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that payments recur despite missing work products, timesheets or meeting records, whereas File B shows that same-day orders to one vendor add up to a larger unapproved purchase. For these Phantom consulting fees and Split procurement invoices files, choosing the pair Split procurement invoices / Phantom consulting fees would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

Question 897

The organization wants to prevent fabricated deductible business cost. Its risk assessment describes: A fictitious expense reduces reported taxable income without a genuine economic cost. What targeted safeguard should it prioritize?

  1. Verify input-tax eligibility and reconcile invoice data to actual transactions.
  2. Document lawful elections and avoid misrepresentation of relevant facts.
  3. Require substantiation and independent review of high-risk deductions.
  4. Maintain complete revenue records and reconcile tax declarations with books.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The control directly addresses the failure point in Fabricated deductible business cost, since a fictitious expense reduces reported taxable income without a genuine economic cost. A subsequent independent review could verify claimed costs against real supplier transactions and business purpose to identify exceptions that bypassed the safeguard.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This safeguard is directed primarily at False consumption-tax input credit rather than Fabricated deductible business cost, because false input credits reduce remitted VAT or generate improper refunds. Unlike the control for False consumption-tax input credit, the more direct design for Fabricated deductible business cost is to require substantiation and independent review of high-risk deductions; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

B:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Lawful tax planning distinction rather than Fabricated deductible business cost, because tax avoidance or planning can lawfully reduce tax; evasion involves unlawful deception or concealment. Unlike the control for Lawful tax planning distinction, the more direct design for Fabricated deductible business cost is to require substantiation and independent review of high-risk deductions; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

D:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Unreported cash taxable income rather than Fabricated deductible business cost, because knowingly concealing taxable receipts can constitute tax evasion rather than lawful tax planning. Unlike the control for Unreported cash taxable income, the more direct design for Fabricated deductible business cost is to require substantiation and independent review of high-risk deductions; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

Question 898

A finance team is reviewing the accuracy of inventory cost recognition. Relevant accounting principle: Unsold goods ordinarily remain inventory assets until sold or written down as required. Which procedure best supports reliable treatment?

  1. Apply an appropriate inventory valuation method and recognize cost when the related goods are sold.
  2. Classify cash from routine business activities separately from investing and financing flows.
  3. Post an appropriate receivable and reconcile the subledger with the control account.
  4. Capitalize the unexpired coverage and expense it systematically over the protection period.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The control directly addresses the failure point in Inventory cost recognition, since unsold goods ordinarily remain inventory assets until sold or written down as required. A subsequent independent review could reconcile perpetual inventory quantities to physical counts and cost-of-goods-sold postings to identify exceptions that bypassed the safeguard.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Operating cash-flow classification rather than Inventory cost recognition, because operating cash flows concern core activities and need not equal accrual net income. Unlike the control for Operating cash-flow classification, the more direct design for Inventory cost recognition is to apply an appropriate inventory valuation method and recognize cost when the related goods are sold; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

C:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Accounts receivable from credit sales rather than Inventory cost recognition, because a legitimate credit sale can create an asset before cash arrives when revenue criteria are met. Unlike the control for Accounts receivable from credit sales, the more direct design for Inventory cost recognition is to apply an appropriate inventory valuation method and recognize cost when the related goods are sold; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

D:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Prepaid insurance expense rather than Inventory cost recognition, because an advance payment creates an asset for future economic benefit rather than immediate expense for all periods. Unlike the control for Prepaid insurance expense, the more direct design for Inventory cost recognition is to apply an appropriate inventory valuation method and recognize cost when the related goods are sold; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

Question 899

Two separate review files raise different issues. File A: Near quarter-end a supplier ships unusually large amounts to resellers with generous return rights that undermine recorded sales. File B: A sales manager promises a major customer an undisclosed right to cancel without penalty after finance books a firm sale. Which pairing accurately classifies both files?

  1. File A: Concealed sales-side agreement; File B: Channel-stuffing manipulation.
  2. File A: Capitalized routine operating costs; File B: Concealed sales-side agreement.
  3. File A: Channel-stuffing manipulation; File B: Concealed sales-side agreement.
  4. File A: Channel-stuffing manipulation; File B: Premature revenue recognition.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

File A is Channel-stuffing manipulation because accelerated shipment can overstate current revenue when substantive return or acceptance terms contradict recognition, while File B is Concealed sales-side agreement because undisclosed contractual rights may defeat the assertion that a recorded sale is final or earned. The evidence chains differ: for File A, reviewers should analyze quarter-end sales, return allowances and post-period credit notes; for File B, they should obtain independent customer terms and inspect side letters and subsequent cancellations.

Incorrect Answers

A:

File A is misidentified as Concealed sales-side agreement instead of Channel-stuffing manipulation; File B is misidentified as Channel-stuffing manipulation instead of Concealed sales-side agreement. With the proposed pairing Concealed sales-side agreement / Channel-stuffing manipulation, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that reseller inventory and returns rise sharply while reported sales surge, whereas File B shows that customer correspondence conflicts with the written contract and booked revenue. For these Channel-stuffing manipulation and Concealed sales-side agreement files, choosing the pair Concealed sales-side agreement / Channel-stuffing manipulation would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

B:

File A is misidentified as Capitalized routine operating costs instead of Channel-stuffing manipulation. With the proposed pairing Capitalized routine operating costs / Concealed sales-side agreement, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that reseller inventory and returns rise sharply while reported sales surge, whereas File B shows that customer correspondence conflicts with the written contract and booked revenue. For these Channel-stuffing manipulation and Concealed sales-side agreement files, choosing the pair Capitalized routine operating costs / Concealed sales-side agreement would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

D:

File B is misidentified as Premature revenue recognition instead of Concealed sales-side agreement. With the proposed pairing Channel-stuffing manipulation / Premature revenue recognition, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that reseller inventory and returns rise sharply while reported sales surge, whereas File B shows that customer correspondence conflicts with the written contract and booked revenue. For these Channel-stuffing manipulation and Concealed sales-side agreement files, choosing the pair Channel-stuffing manipulation / Premature revenue recognition would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

Question 900

The team is assessing a potential check-kiting float abuse discrepancy. Initial observation: Circular deposits and withdrawals depend on unsettled checks rather than real incoming funds. Which verification step is most informative?

  1. Inspect card-reader slots and correlate card compromise with device servicing logs.
  2. Reconstruct check presentment and availability timelines across related accounts.
  3. Compare compromised-card common points of purchase and inspect terminals for overlays.
  4. Compare cleared checks against controlled issuance files and bank exceptions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

For the Check-kiting float abuse concern, the procedure tests source evidence behind this observation: Circular deposits and withdrawals depend on unsettled checks rather than real incoming funds. This matters because kiting exploits settlement timing to inflate apparent funds without a genuine source of money; independent corroboration is necessary before accepting any conclusion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This comparison primarily addresses Chip-card shimming, in which a shim targets information in the chip-card interface; chip transaction data alone does not necessarily permit cloning a valid chip; because the present question instead concerns Check-kiting float abuse, reviewers should reconstruct check presentment and availability timelines across related accounts rather than apply a check designed for Chip-card shimming.

C:

This comparison primarily addresses Magnetic-stripe card skimming, in which skimmers capture card data at a physical payment interface for later unauthorized use; because the present question instead concerns Check-kiting float abuse, reviewers should reconstruct check presentment and availability timelines across related accounts rather than apply a check designed for Magnetic-stripe card skimming.

D:

This comparison primarily addresses Counterfeit check creation, in which counterfeit checks are fabricated payment instruments rather than alterations of legitimate originals; because the present question instead concerns Check-kiting float abuse, reviewers should reconstruct check presentment and availability timelines across related accounts rather than apply a check designed for Counterfeit check creation.

Certified Fraud Examiner - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes (CFE - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes) Practice Tests