ACFE CFE - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes (Certified Fraud Examiner - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes) Practice Test 82

Question 810

The review team observes the following: Service reports show a completed obligation absent from the year-end payables ledger. It seeks one targeted detection step and one preventive measure that address the same underlying vulnerability. Which pairing is best?

  1. Diagnostic: Trace shipping confirmations to invoices, customer balances and subsequent collections; safeguard: Recognize unearned consideration as a liability until the related service is earned.
  2. Diagnostic: Reconcile policy coverage dates and the prepaid-insurance amortization schedule; safeguard: Use an unbilled-liabilities accrual and review invoices received after close.
  3. Diagnostic: Inspect post-close invoices and receiving evidence for prior-period services; safeguard: Post an appropriate receivable and reconcile the subledger with the control account.
  4. Diagnostic: Inspect post-close invoices and receiving evidence for prior-period services; safeguard: Use an unbilled-liabilities accrual and review invoices received after close.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The test addresses Accrued supplier expense by targeting this observation: Service reports show a completed obligation absent from the year-end payables ledger. The accompanying safeguard—use an unbilled-liabilities accrual and review invoices received after close—counters the same opportunity, so both checking and prevention concern one cause.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The evidence test relates to Accounts receivable from credit sales, whereas the proposed safeguard protects against Deferred customer revenue; neither directly resolves Accrued supplier expense. Unlike the Accounts receivable from credit sales test and Deferred customer revenue safeguard, the investigation of Accrued supplier expense requires reviewers to inspect post-close invoices and receiving evidence for prior-period services, followed by assessment of the matching control point.

B:

The proposed safeguard is relevant to Accrued supplier expense, but the diagnostic tests Prepaid insurance expense rather than the identified anomaly. That test is aimed at records involving coverage extends well beyond the period carrying the entire charge; the specified case instead calls for reviewers to inspect post-close invoices and receiving evidence for prior-period services.

C:

The diagnostic correctly examines Accrued supplier expense by having reviewers inspect post-close invoices and receiving evidence for prior-period services, but the safeguard is for Accounts receivable from credit sales. That prevention step responds to a different mechanism: A legitimate credit sale can create an asset before cash arrives when revenue criteria are met.

Question 811

The review team observes the following: Turnover and commission-to-equity ratios become excessive relative to client objectives. It seeks one targeted detection step and one preventive measure that address the same underlying vulnerability. Which pairing is best?

  1. Diagnostic: Analyze account turnover, costs, broker control and trading justifications; safeguard: Monitor commission-driven activity and require supervisory review of high-turnover accounts.
  2. Diagnostic: Analyze account turnover, costs, broker control and trading justifications; safeguard: Verify regulatory status and permitted functions of intermediaries before engagement.
  3. Diagnostic: Trace public environmental claims to primary data, methodology and validation evidence; safeguard: Monitor commission-driven activity and require supervisory review of high-turnover accounts.
  4. Diagnostic: Compare business activities and compensation against applicable regulator registrations; safeguard: Require documented suitability assessment and independent review of high-risk recommendations.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The test addresses Excessive-account churning by targeting this observation: Turnover and commission-to-equity ratios become excessive relative to client objectives. The accompanying safeguard—monitor commission-driven activity and require supervisory review of high-turnover accounts—counters the same opportunity, so both checking and prevention concern one cause.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The diagnostic correctly examines Excessive-account churning by having reviewers analyze account turnover, costs, broker control and trading justifications, but the safeguard is for Unregistered brokerage solicitation. That prevention step responds to a different mechanism: Securities-related compensation and solicitation can trigger registration obligations under relevant laws.

C:

The proposed safeguard is relevant to Excessive-account churning, but the diagnostic tests False sustainability disclosures rather than the identified anomaly. That test is aimed at records involving external sustainability claims disagree with underlying meter and assurance records; the specified case instead calls for reviewers to analyze account turnover, costs, broker control and trading justifications.

D:

The evidence test relates to Unregistered brokerage solicitation, whereas the proposed safeguard protects against Unsuitable securities recommendation; neither directly resolves Excessive-account churning. Unlike the Unregistered brokerage solicitation test and Unsuitable securities recommendation safeguard, the investigation of Excessive-account churning requires reviewers to analyze account turnover, costs, broker control and trading justifications, followed by assessment of the matching control point.

Question 812

Two separate review files raise different issues. File A: Two contractors submit deliberately inflated offers so a favored participant appears competitively priced. File B: A dominant bidder pays competitors to refrain from submitting proposals in selected districts. Which pairing accurately classifies both files?

  1. File A: Complementary cover bidding; File B: Bid suppression agreement.
  2. File A: Complementary cover bidding; File B: Bid rotation agreement.
  3. File A: Leaked confidential price estimate; File B: Bid suppression agreement.
  4. File A: Bid suppression agreement; File B: Complementary cover bidding.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

File A is Complementary cover bidding because cover bids create an illusion of competition while protecting a preselected winner, while File B is Bid suppression agreement because suppressing bids reduces competition by preventing otherwise viable offers. The evidence chains differ: for File A, reviewers should compare bid preparation artifacts, related owners and independent market estimates; for File B, they should trace withdrawal patterns, communications and supplier compensation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

File B is misidentified as Bid rotation agreement instead of Bid suppression agreement. With the proposed pairing Complementary cover bidding / Bid rotation agreement, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that losing bids share errors, metadata or implausible pricing unrelated to true cost, whereas File B shows that expected active suppliers repeatedly withdraw after contact with the eventual winner. For these Complementary cover bidding and Bid suppression agreement files, choosing the pair Complementary cover bidding / Bid rotation agreement would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

C:

File A is misidentified as Leaked confidential price estimate instead of Complementary cover bidding. With the proposed pairing Leaked confidential price estimate / Bid suppression agreement, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that losing bids share errors, metadata or implausible pricing unrelated to true cost, whereas File B shows that expected active suppliers repeatedly withdraw after contact with the eventual winner. For these Complementary cover bidding and Bid suppression agreement files, choosing the pair Leaked confidential price estimate / Bid suppression agreement would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

D:

File A is misidentified as Bid suppression agreement instead of Complementary cover bidding; File B is misidentified as Complementary cover bidding instead of Bid suppression agreement. With the proposed pairing Bid suppression agreement / Complementary cover bidding, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that losing bids share errors, metadata or implausible pricing unrelated to true cost, whereas File B shows that expected active suppliers repeatedly withdraw after contact with the eventual winner. For these Complementary cover bidding and Bid suppression agreement files, choosing the pair Bid suppression agreement / Complementary cover bidding would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

Question 813

Two separate review files raise different issues. File A: A production supervisor labels usable components as scrap and sells them privately. File B: A shipping clerk prepares bogus transfer paperwork and diverts cartons to a private address. Which pairing accurately classifies both files?

  1. File A: False scrap classification; File B: Warehouse stock diversion.
  2. File A: False scrap classification; File B: Fictitious outbound shipment.
  3. File A: Fictitious outbound shipment; File B: False scrap classification.
  4. File A: Unauthorized equipment personal use; File B: Fictitious outbound shipment.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

File A is False scrap classification because misclassification makes valuable inventory appear worthless before it leaves the site, while File B is Fictitious outbound shipment because false shipment records disguise a physical theft as normal logistics activity. The evidence chains differ: for File A, reviewers should inspect scrap authorizations against production defects, quantities and recycler receipts; for File B, they should match shipment scans and carrier proof of delivery to authorized sales or transfers.

Incorrect Answers

A:

File B is misidentified as Warehouse stock diversion instead of Fictitious outbound shipment. With the proposed pairing False scrap classification / Warehouse stock diversion, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that disposal lists contain items with normal working condition or resale value, whereas File B shows that dispatch scans lack matching customer orders or destination acknowledgments. For these False scrap classification and Fictitious outbound shipment files, choosing the pair False scrap classification / Warehouse stock diversion would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

C:

File A is misidentified as Fictitious outbound shipment instead of False scrap classification; File B is misidentified as False scrap classification instead of Fictitious outbound shipment. With the proposed pairing Fictitious outbound shipment / False scrap classification, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that disposal lists contain items with normal working condition or resale value, whereas File B shows that dispatch scans lack matching customer orders or destination acknowledgments. For these False scrap classification and Fictitious outbound shipment files, choosing the pair Fictitious outbound shipment / False scrap classification would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

D:

File A is misidentified as Unauthorized equipment personal use instead of False scrap classification. With the proposed pairing Unauthorized equipment personal use / Fictitious outbound shipment, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that disposal lists contain items with normal working condition or resale value, whereas File B shows that dispatch scans lack matching customer orders or destination acknowledgments. For these False scrap classification and Fictitious outbound shipment files, choosing the pair Unauthorized equipment personal use / Fictitious outbound shipment would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

Question 814

The risk team has identified the following receivable lapping exposure: Lapping rolls forward a shortage by applying one customer's payment to another account. Which proposed prevention step is most effective?

  1. Require issued sequential tickets and reconcile unused stock with entry counts.
  2. Separate cash custody and reconciliation with surprise cash counts.
  3. Assign cash receipt posting to an employee who cannot handle incoming funds.
  4. Separate receipt custody from receivable posting and review all write-off authorizations.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The control directly addresses the failure point in Receivable lapping, since lapping rolls forward a shortage by applying one customer's payment to another account. A subsequent independent review could trace a sample of individual customer remittances through deposit and account-credit dates to identify exceptions that bypassed the safeguard.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Unrecorded admission-fee skimming rather than Receivable lapping, because off-book ticket proceeds can disappear without creating a deposit shortage in the books. Unlike the control for Unrecorded admission-fee skimming, the more direct design for Receivable lapping is to assign cash receipt posting to an employee who cannot handle incoming funds; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

B:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Recorded-till cash larceny rather than Receivable lapping, because cash larceny steals receipts after they have been recorded, leaving a book-to-cash shortage. Unlike the control for Recorded-till cash larceny, the more direct design for Receivable lapping is to assign cash receipt posting to an employee who cannot handle incoming funds; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

D:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Accounts-receivable skimming rather than Receivable lapping, because the employee captures incoming funds and conceals the missing credit to the customer's balance. Unlike the control for Accounts-receivable skimming, the more direct design for Receivable lapping is to assign cash receipt posting to an employee who cannot handle incoming funds; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

Question 815

For a review of insider customer-account embezzlement, which evidence-based warning sign is the most specific?

  1. Multiple recent inquiries and fresh obligations exceed declared indebtedness.
  2. New device sessions and unfamiliar recipients appear without the customer's authorization.
  3. Appraisal assumptions diverge from nearby verified comparable transactions.
  4. Dormant-account access and transfers are concentrated under one staff identifier.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

This observation is a pertinent indicator of Insider customer-account embezzlement because an insider exploits entrusted bank access to misappropriate depositor funds. The practical corroborating procedure is to review dormant-account transactions, access logs and beneficiary links; the indicator by itself does not establish intent or error.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed observation fits Loan-stacking applications, where hidden parallel borrowing makes the applicant's repayment capacity appear stronger than it is, rather than the particular mechanism in Insider customer-account embezzlement. Unlike the clue for Loan-stacking applications, the more directly related indicator for Insider customer-account embezzlement is this: Dormant-account access and transfers are concentrated under one staff identifier.

B:

The proposed observation fits Financial-account takeover, where the account is legitimate but control of its credentials or session has been stolen, rather than the particular mechanism in Insider customer-account embezzlement. Unlike the clue for Financial-account takeover, the more directly related indicator for Insider customer-account embezzlement is this: Dormant-account access and transfers are concentrated under one staff identifier.

C:

The proposed observation fits Inflated real estate appraisal, where artificial collateral values lead lenders to advance more credit than the asset justifies, rather than the particular mechanism in Insider customer-account embezzlement. Unlike the clue for Inflated real estate appraisal, the more directly related indicator for Insider customer-account embezzlement is this: Dormant-account access and transfers are concentrated under one staff identifier.

Question 816

The review team observes the following: Repeated card purchases and redemptions are connected across nominally unrelated buyers. It seeks one targeted detection step and one preventive measure that address the same underlying vulnerability. Which pairing is best?

  1. Diagnostic: Follow control and ownership links to natural persons using reliable independent evidence; safeguard: Apply virtual-asset service-provider due diligence and suspicious-flow monitoring.
  2. Diagnostic: Link funding methods, card serials and redemption beneficiaries; safeguard: Identify and verify beneficial owners under applicable customer-due-diligence rules.
  3. Diagnostic: Reconcile sender receipts, broker obligations and final beneficiary payouts; safeguard: Monitor aggregated stored-value activity and apply appropriate identification limits.
  4. Diagnostic: Link funding methods, card serials and redemption beneficiaries; safeguard: Monitor aggregated stored-value activity and apply appropriate identification limits.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The test addresses Stored-value card conversion by targeting this observation: Repeated card purchases and redemptions are connected across nominally unrelated buyers. The accompanying safeguard—monitor aggregated stored-value activity and apply appropriate identification limits—counters the same opportunity, so both checking and prevention concern one cause.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The evidence test relates to Opaque beneficial-ownership layers, whereas the proposed safeguard protects against Virtual-asset layering; neither directly resolves Stored-value card conversion. Unlike the Opaque beneficial-ownership layers test and Virtual-asset layering safeguard, the investigation of Stored-value card conversion requires reviewers to link funding methods, card serials and redemption beneficiaries, followed by assessment of the matching control point.

B:

The diagnostic correctly examines Stored-value card conversion by having reviewers link funding methods, card serials and redemption beneficiaries, but the safeguard is for Opaque beneficial-ownership layers. That prevention step responds to a different mechanism: Legal-entity layers can conceal who controls funds and defeat superficial name-only screening.

C:

The proposed safeguard is relevant to Stored-value card conversion, but the diagnostic tests Alternative remittance settlement rather than the identified anomaly. That test is aimed at records involving payments and settlement records do not resemble ordinary end-to-end bank transfers; the specified case instead calls for reviewers to link funding methods, card serials and redemption beneficiaries.

Question 817

The case file describes the following: A finance clerk receives a convincing voice call mimicking a director demanding an urgent confidential transfer. Which classification best explains the events?

  1. Vendor-mailbox business email compromise
  2. Spear-phishing credential capture
  3. Pharming through DNS manipulation
  4. AI-voice executive impersonation

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

AI-voice executive impersonation fits the facts because synthetic voice impersonation can exploit executive authority cues without true authorization; the distinguishing observation is that the payment request bypasses established authorizations and uses an unverified callback number. To test this interpretation, a reviewer should authenticate the speaker through an independent known channel and inspect communication provenance.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Vendor-mailbox business email compromise would involve a different sequence from AI-voice executive impersonation: bEC uses trusted business communications to redirect funds without necessarily altering the invoice amount. Unlike the rejected Vendor-mailbox business email compromise label, the evidence concerns AI-voice executive impersonation, since the payment request bypasses established authorizations and uses an unverified callback number; reviewers should authenticate the speaker through an independent known channel and inspect communication provenance.

B:

Spear-phishing credential capture would involve a different sequence from AI-voice executive impersonation: targeted phishing collects credentials by masquerading as a trusted internal communication. Unlike the rejected Spear-phishing credential capture label, the evidence concerns AI-voice executive impersonation, since the payment request bypasses established authorizations and uses an unverified callback number; reviewers should authenticate the speaker through an independent known channel and inspect communication provenance.

C:

Pharming through DNS manipulation would involve a different sequence from AI-voice executive impersonation: pharming diverts site resolution without requiring victims to click a deceptive message link. Unlike the rejected Pharming through DNS manipulation label, the evidence concerns AI-voice executive impersonation, since the payment request bypasses established authorizations and uses an unverified callback number; reviewers should authenticate the speaker through an independent known channel and inspect communication provenance.

Question 818

An exception review involving leaked confidential price estimate identifies the following: The winner's bid narrowly undercuts a nonpublic cost estimate and communications show early access. Which evidence comparison most directly evaluates the facts?

  1. Trace withdrawal patterns, communications and supplier compensation.
  2. Compare proposed purchase needs with inventory, utilization and operational plans.
  3. Aggregate same-purpose requisitions and compare total value with policy thresholds.
  4. Compare restricted-file access and messaging with bid timing.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

For the Leaked confidential price estimate concern, the procedure tests source evidence behind this observation: The winner's bid narrowly undercuts a nonpublic cost estimate and communications show early access. This matters because insider disclosure removes the information parity necessary for a fair tender; independent corroboration is necessary before accepting any conclusion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This comparison primarily addresses Bid suppression agreement, in which suppressing bids reduces competition by preventing otherwise viable offers; because the present question instead concerns Leaked confidential price estimate, reviewers should compare restricted-file access and messaging with bid timing rather than apply a check designed for Bid suppression agreement.

B:

This comparison primarily addresses Invented procurement need, in which procurement fraud can begin before bids when a false organizational need is created; because the present question instead concerns Leaked confidential price estimate, reviewers should compare restricted-file access and messaging with bid timing rather than apply a check designed for Invented procurement need.

C:

This comparison primarily addresses Split purchases to evade tender threshold, in which fragmentation bypasses a competitive procedure that would apply to the full requirement; because the present question instead concerns Leaked confidential price estimate, reviewers should compare restricted-file access and messaging with bid timing rather than apply a check designed for Split purchases to evade tender threshold.

Question 819

The case file describes the following: An insider changes an employee's bank account in the payroll master without authorization. Which classification best explains the events?

  1. Payroll direct-deposit diversion
  2. Manipulated commission sales
  3. Terminated worker retained on payroll
  4. Unauthorized bonus disbursement

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Payroll direct-deposit diversion fits the facts because a genuine employee's wages are redirected by altering settlement data; the distinguishing observation is that bank-detail changes immediately precede pay to unfamiliar accounts. To test this interpretation, a reviewer should inspect change logs and independently confirm altered deposit instructions with workers.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Manipulated commission sales would involve a different sequence from Payroll direct-deposit diversion: compensation is extracted through false performance metrics rather than fake employees. Unlike the rejected Manipulated commission sales label, the evidence concerns Payroll direct-deposit diversion, since bank-detail changes immediately precede pay to unfamiliar accounts; reviewers should inspect change logs and independently confirm altered deposit instructions with workers.

C:

Terminated worker retained on payroll would involve a different sequence from Payroll direct-deposit diversion: continuing pay to a departed employee produces a disbursement with no current employment basis. Unlike the rejected Terminated worker retained on payroll label, the evidence concerns Payroll direct-deposit diversion, since bank-detail changes immediately precede pay to unfamiliar accounts; reviewers should inspect change logs and independently confirm altered deposit instructions with workers.

D:

Unauthorized bonus disbursement would involve a different sequence from Payroll direct-deposit diversion: improper one-off payments exploit weak controls over discretionary compensation. Unlike the rejected Unauthorized bonus disbursement label, the evidence concerns Payroll direct-deposit diversion, since bank-detail changes immediately precede pay to unfamiliar accounts; reviewers should inspect change logs and independently confirm altered deposit instructions with workers.

Question 820

The case file describes the following: A bank sees layered transfers without economic support but the account holder has not been convicted of a crime. Which classification best explains the events?

  1. Opaque beneficial-ownership layers
  2. Cash-deposit structuring
  3. Suspicious-activity reporting decision
  4. Terrorist-financing source distinction

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Suspicious-activity reporting decision fits the facts because a SAR or STR is a suspicion-based regulatory tool; examiners need not prove criminal guilt before considering it; the distinguishing observation is that a documented pattern raises a reasonable suspicion even though proof of an offense is incomplete. To test this interpretation, a reviewer should review linked transactions and record the rationale for a report under applicable law.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Opaque beneficial-ownership layers would involve a different sequence from Suspicious-activity reporting decision: legal-entity layers can conceal who controls funds and defeat superficial name-only screening. Unlike the rejected Opaque beneficial-ownership layers label, the evidence concerns Suspicious-activity reporting decision, since a documented pattern raises a reasonable suspicion even though proof of an offense is incomplete; reviewers should review linked transactions and record the rationale for a report under applicable law.

B:

Cash-deposit structuring would involve a different sequence from Suspicious-activity reporting decision: structuring intentionally fragments transactions to evade detection or reporting; the exact threshold is jurisdiction-dependent. Unlike the rejected Cash-deposit structuring label, the evidence concerns Suspicious-activity reporting decision, since a documented pattern raises a reasonable suspicion even though proof of an offense is incomplete; reviewers should review linked transactions and record the rationale for a report under applicable law.

D:

Terrorist-financing source distinction would involve a different sequence from Suspicious-activity reporting decision: terrorist financing can involve legitimately sourced money; destination and intended use are central concerns. Unlike the rejected Terrorist-financing source distinction label, the evidence concerns Suspicious-activity reporting decision, since a documented pattern raises a reasonable suspicion even though proof of an offense is incomplete; reviewers should review linked transactions and record the rationale for a report under applicable law.

Certified Fraud Examiner - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes (CFE - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes) Practice Tests