ACFE CFE - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes (Certified Fraud Examiner - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes) Practice Test 52

Question 510

An examination of falsified overtime payroll begins with this observation: Clock records and access logs conflict with approved overtime hours. Which follow-up procedure gives the most direct evidence?

  1. Reconcile payroll to personnel files, attendance and independent headcount.
  2. Compare payroll overtime with access, shift and work-order evidence.
  3. Reconcile commission calculations with final customer payments and returns.
  4. Inspect change logs and independently confirm altered deposit instructions with workers.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

For the Falsified overtime payroll concern, the procedure tests source evidence behind this observation: Clock records and access logs conflict with approved overtime hours. This matters because false hours increase payments to real employees without corresponding services; independent corroboration is necessary before accepting any conclusion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This comparison primarily addresses Ghost payroll employee, in which a fabricated employee record turns ordinary payroll into an unauthorized disbursement; because the present question instead concerns Falsified overtime payroll, reviewers should compare payroll overtime with access, shift and work-order evidence rather than apply a check designed for Ghost payroll employee.

C:

This comparison primarily addresses Manipulated commission sales, in which compensation is extracted through false performance metrics rather than fake employees; because the present question instead concerns Falsified overtime payroll, reviewers should compare payroll overtime with access, shift and work-order evidence rather than apply a check designed for Manipulated commission sales.

D:

This comparison primarily addresses Payroll direct-deposit diversion, in which a genuine employee's wages are redirected by altering settlement data; because the present question instead concerns Falsified overtime payroll, reviewers should compare payroll overtime with access, shift and work-order evidence rather than apply a check designed for Payroll direct-deposit diversion.

Question 511

For a review of trustee and receiver accountability, which evidence-based warning sign is the most specific?

  1. Financial records show transfers to an undisclosed account shortly before filing.
  2. Customer confirmations and creditor support contradict filed values.
  3. A credible operating plan exists and management proposes a going-concern recovery.
  4. Asset disposals require documented authority and accounting to the court or creditors.
  5. The payment timing, relationship and insolvency condition raise preference concerns.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

This observation is a pertinent indicator of Trustee and receiver accountability because a trustee or receiver acts within a defined legal appointment to administer assets, not as an unrestricted owner. The practical corroborating procedure is to review appointment orders, estate ledgers and independent disposal evidence; the indicator by itself does not establish intent or error.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed observation fits Concealed offshore insolvency asset, where concealment deprives the estate and creditors of property that should be disclosed, rather than the particular mechanism in Trustee and receiver accountability. Unlike the clue for Concealed offshore insolvency asset, the more directly related indicator for Trustee and receiver accountability is this: Asset disposals require documented authority and accounting to the court or creditors.

B:

The proposed observation fits False insolvency schedules, where false asset and debt statements distort the administration of the insolvency estate, rather than the particular mechanism in Trustee and receiver accountability. Unlike the clue for False insolvency schedules, the more directly related indicator for Trustee and receiver accountability is this: Asset disposals require documented authority and accounting to the court or creditors.

C:

The proposed observation fits Liquidation versus reorganization, where reorganization aims to preserve or restructure the enterprise; liquidation ordinarily realizes assets for distribution, rather than the particular mechanism in Trustee and receiver accountability. Unlike the clue for Liquidation versus reorganization, the more directly related indicator for Trustee and receiver accountability is this: Asset disposals require documented authority and accounting to the court or creditors.

E:

The proposed observation fits Preferential creditor payment review, where preference rules can permit recovery of certain pre-filing payments without proving a fictitious invoice or ordinary theft, rather than the particular mechanism in Trustee and receiver accountability. Unlike the clue for Preferential creditor payment review, the more directly related indicator for Trustee and receiver accountability is this: Asset disposals require documented authority and accounting to the court or creditors.

Question 512

Two separate review files raise different issues. File A: A vendor and insider arrange payment for full quantities when the warehouse received only part of the order. File B: A payroll administrator creates a nonexistent worker and routes wages to an account the administrator controls. Which pairing accurately classifies both files?

  1. File A: Unreceived goods billing; File B: Ghost payroll employee.
  2. File A: Ghost payroll employee; File B: Unreceived goods billing.
  3. File A: Falsified overtime payroll; File B: Ghost payroll employee.
  4. File A: Unreceived goods billing; File B: Split procurement invoices.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

File A is Unreceived goods billing because the payer is charged for goods that were never delivered or accepted, while File B is Ghost payroll employee because a fabricated employee record turns ordinary payroll into an unauthorized disbursement. The evidence chains differ: for File A, reviewers should perform three-way matching among order, receipt and invoice quantities; for File B, they should reconcile payroll to personnel files, attendance and independent headcount.

Incorrect Answers

B:

File A is misidentified as Ghost payroll employee instead of Unreceived goods billing; File B is misidentified as Unreceived goods billing instead of Ghost payroll employee. With the proposed pairing Ghost payroll employee / Unreceived goods billing, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that invoice quantities exceed independent goods-received records, whereas File B shows that employee master records have no HR file or manager confirmation but receive pay. For these Unreceived goods billing and Ghost payroll employee files, choosing the pair Ghost payroll employee / Unreceived goods billing would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

C:

File A is misidentified as Falsified overtime payroll instead of Unreceived goods billing. With the proposed pairing Falsified overtime payroll / Ghost payroll employee, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that invoice quantities exceed independent goods-received records, whereas File B shows that employee master records have no HR file or manager confirmation but receive pay. For these Unreceived goods billing and Ghost payroll employee files, choosing the pair Falsified overtime payroll / Ghost payroll employee would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

D:

File B is misidentified as Split procurement invoices instead of Ghost payroll employee. With the proposed pairing Unreceived goods billing / Split procurement invoices, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that invoice quantities exceed independent goods-received records, whereas File B shows that employee master records have no HR file or manager confirmation but receive pay. For these Unreceived goods billing and Ghost payroll employee files, choosing the pair Unreceived goods billing / Split procurement invoices would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

Question 513

The review team observes the following: The payment request bypasses established authorizations and uses an unverified callback number. It seeks one targeted detection step and one preventive measure that address the same underlying vulnerability. Which pairing is best?

  1. Diagnostic: Review mailbox access events and independently verify beneficiary instructions; safeguard: Secure DNS administration and detect unauthorized name-resolution changes.
  2. Diagnostic: Review mailbox access events and independently verify beneficiary instructions; safeguard: Deploy phishing-resistant authentication and user reporting of suspicious domains.
  3. Diagnostic: Verify trusted DNS records and correlate resolution history with website certificates; safeguard: Use phishing-resistant access controls and callback verification for payment changes.
  4. Diagnostic: Authenticate the speaker through an independent known channel and inspect communication provenance; safeguard: Require transaction approvals that cannot be waived by voice alone.
  5. Diagnostic: Authenticate the speaker through an independent known channel and inspect communication provenance; safeguard: Secure DNS administration and detect unauthorized name-resolution changes.
  6. Diagnostic: Compare URL provenance, identity-provider logs and user reports; safeguard: Require transaction approvals that cannot be waived by voice alone.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The test addresses AI-voice executive impersonation by targeting this observation: The payment request bypasses established authorizations and uses an unverified callback number. The accompanying safeguard—require transaction approvals that cannot be waived by voice alone—counters the same opportunity, so both checking and prevention concern one cause.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The evidence test relates to Vendor-mailbox business email compromise, whereas the proposed safeguard protects against Pharming through DNS manipulation; neither directly resolves AI-voice executive impersonation. Unlike the Vendor-mailbox business email compromise test and Pharming through DNS manipulation safeguard, the investigation of AI-voice executive impersonation requires reviewers to authenticate the speaker through an independent known channel and inspect communication provenance, followed by assessment of the matching control point.

B:

The evidence test relates to Vendor-mailbox business email compromise, whereas the proposed safeguard protects against Spear-phishing credential capture; neither directly resolves AI-voice executive impersonation. Unlike the Vendor-mailbox business email compromise test and Spear-phishing credential capture safeguard, the investigation of AI-voice executive impersonation requires reviewers to authenticate the speaker through an independent known channel and inspect communication provenance, followed by assessment of the matching control point.

C:

The evidence test relates to Pharming through DNS manipulation, whereas the proposed safeguard protects against Vendor-mailbox business email compromise; neither directly resolves AI-voice executive impersonation. Unlike the Pharming through DNS manipulation test and Vendor-mailbox business email compromise safeguard, the investigation of AI-voice executive impersonation requires reviewers to authenticate the speaker through an independent known channel and inspect communication provenance, followed by assessment of the matching control point.

E:

The diagnostic correctly examines AI-voice executive impersonation by having reviewers authenticate the speaker through an independent known channel and inspect communication provenance, but the safeguard is for Pharming through DNS manipulation. That prevention step responds to a different mechanism: Pharming diverts site resolution without requiring victims to click a deceptive message link.

F:

The proposed safeguard is relevant to AI-voice executive impersonation, but the diagnostic tests Spear-phishing credential capture rather than the identified anomaly. That test is aimed at records involving the login occurred on a lookalike domain immediately before suspicious account access; the specified case instead calls for reviewers to authenticate the speaker through an independent known channel and inspect communication provenance.

Question 514

Two separate review files raise different issues. File A: An individual divides a large amount of cash into repeated smaller deposits designed to avoid applicable reporting thresholds. File B: A recruited individual receives unknown-origin payments and rapidly forwards them for a commission. Which pairing accurately classifies both files?

  1. File A: Cash-deposit structuring; File B: Money-mule transfers.
  2. File A: Money-mule transfers; File B: Cash-deposit structuring.
  3. File A: Cash-deposit structuring; File B: Terrorist-financing source distinction.
  4. File A: Layering through repeated wires; File B: Money-mule transfers.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

File A is Cash-deposit structuring because structuring intentionally fragments transactions to evade detection or reporting; the exact threshold is jurisdiction-dependent, while File B is Money-mule transfers because money mules help move proceeds while separating the originator from subsequent recipients. The evidence chains differ: for File A, reviewers should aggregate linked cash transactions by beneficial party, time and channel; for File B, they should trace incoming and outgoing counterparties, timelines and the person's stated purpose.

Incorrect Answers

B:

File A is misidentified as Money-mule transfers instead of Cash-deposit structuring; File B is misidentified as Cash-deposit structuring instead of Money-mule transfers. With the proposed pairing Money-mule transfers / Cash-deposit structuring, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that closely timed deposits aggregate to an unusual total despite individual amounts being smaller, whereas File B shows that funds enter and leave a personal account within hours with little economic explanation. For these Cash-deposit structuring and Money-mule transfers files, choosing the pair Money-mule transfers / Cash-deposit structuring would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

C:

File B is misidentified as Terrorist-financing source distinction instead of Money-mule transfers. With the proposed pairing Cash-deposit structuring / Terrorist-financing source distinction, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that closely timed deposits aggregate to an unusual total despite individual amounts being smaller, whereas File B shows that funds enter and leave a personal account within hours with little economic explanation. For these Cash-deposit structuring and Money-mule transfers files, choosing the pair Cash-deposit structuring / Terrorist-financing source distinction would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

D:

File A is misidentified as Layering through repeated wires instead of Cash-deposit structuring. With the proposed pairing Layering through repeated wires / Money-mule transfers, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that closely timed deposits aggregate to an unusual total despite individual amounts being smaller, whereas File B shows that funds enter and leave a personal account within hours with little economic explanation. For these Cash-deposit structuring and Money-mule transfers files, choosing the pair Layering through repeated wires / Money-mule transfers would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

Question 515

Control designers are focusing on the mechanism behind sham subcontractor pass-through: A dummy lower-tier supplier can hide unwarranted profit or diversion within contract costs. Which measure best limits that opportunity?

  1. Require approval of subcontractor legitimacy and documented deliverable acceptance.
  2. Inspect high-risk materials independently before acceptance.
  3. Use independent quantity verification and three-way matching.
  4. Use documented scoring rubrics, panel moderation and independent challenge.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The control directly addresses the failure point in Sham subcontractor pass-through, since a dummy lower-tier supplier can hide unwarranted profit or diversion within contract costs. A subsequent independent review could verify subcontractor ownership, labor records and completed outputs to identify exceptions that bypassed the safeguard.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Nonconforming material substitution rather than Sham subcontractor pass-through, because the vendor obtains full payment while supplying inferior goods. Unlike the control for Nonconforming material substitution, the more direct design for Sham subcontractor pass-through is to require approval of subcontractor legitimacy and documented deliverable acceptance; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

C:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Short delivery on public contract rather than Sham subcontractor pass-through, because billing for undelivered quantities converts a legitimate contract into an overpayment. Unlike the control for Short delivery on public contract, the more direct design for Sham subcontractor pass-through is to require approval of subcontractor legitimacy and documented deliverable acceptance; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

D:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Collusive bid-evaluation scoring rather than Sham subcontractor pass-through, because manipulated evaluation changes the award outcome after bids arrive, unlike specification tailoring. Unlike the control for Collusive bid-evaluation scoring, the more direct design for Sham subcontractor pass-through is to require approval of subcontractor legitimacy and documented deliverable acceptance; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

Question 516

Control designers are focusing on the mechanism behind unauthorized register cash payout: The register balance is reduced through a purported business disbursement rather than a sale. Which measure best limits that opportunity?

  1. Restrict post-sale void rights and review exception logs with video where lawful.
  2. Require tiered markdown approvals and independent discount-exception review.
  3. Restrict refund destinations and monitor repeated beneficiary cards.
  4. Require independent authorization and item verification for refunds.
  5. Disallow unsupported cash paid-outs and require separate approval.

Explanation

Correct Answer

E:

The control directly addresses the failure point in Unauthorized register cash payout, since the register balance is reduced through a purported business disbursement rather than a sale. A subsequent independent review could reconcile register paid-outs to approved source documents and purchases to identify exceptions that bypassed the safeguard.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Fraudulent sale void rather than Unauthorized register cash payout, because voiding erases or reverses a legitimate recorded sale while the customer payment was retained. Unlike the control for Fraudulent sale void, the more direct design for Unauthorized register cash payout is to disallow unsupported cash paid-outs and require separate approval; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

B:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Collusive price markdown rather than Unauthorized register cash payout, because sale-price manipulation improperly transfers value to an accomplice through undercharging. Unlike the control for Collusive price markdown, the more direct design for Unauthorized register cash payout is to disallow unsupported cash paid-outs and require separate approval; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

C:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Manipulated return-to-gift-card rather than Unauthorized register cash payout, because a fabricated return transfers store value instead of extracting physical currency. Unlike the control for Manipulated return-to-gift-card, the more direct design for Unauthorized register cash payout is to disallow unsupported cash paid-outs and require separate approval; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

D:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Fictitious register refund rather than Unauthorized register cash payout, because the false disbursement is disguised as money returned to a customer. Unlike the control for Fictitious register refund, the more direct design for Unauthorized register cash payout is to disallow unsupported cash paid-outs and require separate approval; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

Question 517

For a review of cash-deposit structuring, which evidence-based warning sign is the most specific?

  1. Funds enter and leave a personal account within hours with little economic explanation.
  2. Closely timed deposits aggregate to an unusual total despite individual amounts being smaller.
  3. A documented pattern raises a reasonable suspicion even though proof of an offense is incomplete.
  4. Disbursements reach concealed end users unrelated to the published charitable mission.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

This observation is a pertinent indicator of Cash-deposit structuring because structuring intentionally fragments transactions to evade detection or reporting; the exact threshold is jurisdiction-dependent. The practical corroborating procedure is to aggregate linked cash transactions by beneficial party, time and channel; the indicator by itself does not establish intent or error.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed observation fits Money-mule transfers, where money mules help move proceeds while separating the originator from subsequent recipients, rather than the particular mechanism in Cash-deposit structuring. Unlike the clue for Money-mule transfers, the more directly related indicator for Cash-deposit structuring is this: Closely timed deposits aggregate to an unusual total despite individual amounts being smaller.

C:

The proposed observation fits Suspicious-activity reporting decision, where a SAR or STR is a suspicion-based regulatory tool; examiners need not prove criminal guilt before considering it, rather than the particular mechanism in Cash-deposit structuring. Unlike the clue for Suspicious-activity reporting decision, the more directly related indicator for Cash-deposit structuring is this: Closely timed deposits aggregate to an unusual total despite individual amounts being smaller.

D:

The proposed observation fits Terrorist-financing source distinction, where terrorist financing can involve legitimately sourced money; destination and intended use are central concerns, rather than the particular mechanism in Cash-deposit structuring. Unlike the clue for Terrorist-financing source distinction, the more directly related indicator for Cash-deposit structuring is this: Closely timed deposits aggregate to an unusual total despite individual amounts being smaller.

Question 518

The case file describes the following: A criminal files an early refund claim using another taxpayer's credentials and an unrelated bank account. Which classification best explains the events?

  1. Sham offshore tax shelter
  2. Lawful tax planning distinction
  3. False consumption-tax input credit
  4. Fabricated deductible business cost
  5. Stolen-identity tax return

Explanation

Correct Answer

E:

Stolen-identity tax return fits the facts because refund fraud uses another person's tax identity rather than understating the criminal's own income; the distinguishing observation is that duplicate tax identities appear with inconsistent devices and refund recipients. To test this interpretation, a reviewer should compare historical filing information with authentication and refund destination records.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Sham offshore tax shelter would involve a different sequence from Stolen-identity tax return: a paper structure intended to conceal taxable facts differs from lawful tax structuring with genuine substance. Unlike the rejected Sham offshore tax shelter label, the evidence concerns Stolen-identity tax return, since duplicate tax identities appear with inconsistent devices and refund recipients; reviewers should compare historical filing information with authentication and refund destination records.

B:

Lawful tax planning distinction would involve a different sequence from Stolen-identity tax return: tax avoidance or planning can lawfully reduce tax; evasion involves unlawful deception or concealment. Unlike the rejected Lawful tax planning distinction label, the evidence concerns Stolen-identity tax return, since duplicate tax identities appear with inconsistent devices and refund recipients; reviewers should compare historical filing information with authentication and refund destination records.

C:

False consumption-tax input credit would involve a different sequence from Stolen-identity tax return: false input credits reduce remitted VAT or generate improper refunds. Unlike the rejected False consumption-tax input credit label, the evidence concerns Stolen-identity tax return, since duplicate tax identities appear with inconsistent devices and refund recipients; reviewers should compare historical filing information with authentication and refund destination records.

D:

Fabricated deductible business cost would involve a different sequence from Stolen-identity tax return: a fictitious expense reduces reported taxable income without a genuine economic cost. Unlike the rejected Fabricated deductible business cost label, the evidence concerns Stolen-identity tax return, since duplicate tax identities appear with inconsistent devices and refund recipients; reviewers should compare historical filing information with authentication and refund destination records.

Question 519

The case file describes the following: A clinic bills a complex, high-paying procedure code for routine visits actually performed. Which classification best explains the events?

  1. False medical necessity certification
  2. Medical service upcoding
  3. Prescribing referral kickback
  4. Phantom patient encounters
  5. Unbundled procedure billing

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Medical service upcoding fits the facts because upcoding inflates payment by assigning a code for a more expensive service than was delivered; the distinguishing observation is that clinical notes support lower-intensity care than the codes billed. To test this interpretation, a reviewer should compare documentation and procedure descriptions with claim-code requirements.

Incorrect Answers

A:

False medical necessity certification would involve a different sequence from Medical service upcoding: claims fraud can arise from false eligibility or necessity rather than nonexistent delivery. Unlike the rejected False medical necessity certification label, the evidence concerns Medical service upcoding, since clinical notes support lower-intensity care than the codes billed; reviewers should compare documentation and procedure descriptions with claim-code requirements.

C:

Prescribing referral kickback would involve a different sequence from Medical service upcoding: financial inducements can corrupt medical decisions even when treatment is actually delivered. Unlike the rejected Prescribing referral kickback label, the evidence concerns Medical service upcoding, since clinical notes support lower-intensity care than the codes billed; reviewers should compare documentation and procedure descriptions with claim-code requirements.

D:

Phantom patient encounters would involve a different sequence from Medical service upcoding: billing nonexistent visits extracts payment for services not rendered. Unlike the rejected Phantom patient encounters label, the evidence concerns Medical service upcoding, since clinical notes support lower-intensity care than the codes billed; reviewers should compare documentation and procedure descriptions with claim-code requirements.

E:

Unbundled procedure billing would involve a different sequence from Medical service upcoding: splitting a bundled service into extra claim lines can produce unjustified reimbursement. Unlike the rejected Unbundled procedure billing label, the evidence concerns Medical service upcoding, since clinical notes support lower-intensity care than the codes billed; reviewers should compare documentation and procedure descriptions with claim-code requirements.

Question 520

The case file describes the following: Two contractors submit deliberately inflated offers so a favored participant appears competitively priced. Which classification best explains the events?

  1. Leaked confidential price estimate
  2. Complementary cover bidding
  3. Bid rotation agreement
  4. Bid suppression agreement

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Complementary cover bidding fits the facts because cover bids create an illusion of competition while protecting a preselected winner; the distinguishing observation is that losing bids share errors, metadata or implausible pricing unrelated to true cost. To test this interpretation, a reviewer should compare bid preparation artifacts, related owners and independent market estimates.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Leaked confidential price estimate would involve a different sequence from Complementary cover bidding: insider disclosure removes the information parity necessary for a fair tender. Unlike the rejected Leaked confidential price estimate label, the evidence concerns Complementary cover bidding, since losing bids share errors, metadata or implausible pricing unrelated to true cost; reviewers should compare bid preparation artifacts, related owners and independent market estimates.

C:

Bid rotation agreement would involve a different sequence from Complementary cover bidding: bid rotation is an agreement to allocate wins rather than genuine independent competition. Unlike the rejected Bid rotation agreement label, the evidence concerns Complementary cover bidding, since losing bids share errors, metadata or implausible pricing unrelated to true cost; reviewers should compare bid preparation artifacts, related owners and independent market estimates.

D:

Bid suppression agreement would involve a different sequence from Complementary cover bidding: suppressing bids reduces competition by preventing otherwise viable offers. Unlike the rejected Bid suppression agreement label, the evidence concerns Complementary cover bidding, since losing bids share errors, metadata or implausible pricing unrelated to true cost; reviewers should compare bid preparation artifacts, related owners and independent market estimates.

Certified Fraud Examiner - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes (CFE - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes) Practice Tests