ACFE CFE - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes (Certified Fraud Examiner - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes) Practice Test 36

Question 350

A process owner is assessing safeguards for virtual-asset layering. The mechanism is: Multiple on-chain transfers can complicate attribution but do not automatically erase transaction history. Which control addresses it most directly?

  1. Monitor aggregated stored-value activity and apply appropriate identification limits.
  2. Apply enhanced customer due diligence where cash volumes contradict business economics.
  3. Apply virtual-asset service-provider due diligence and suspicious-flow monitoring.
  4. Apply lawful currency-declaration controls and risk-based physical inspection.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The control directly addresses the failure point in Virtual-asset layering, since multiple on-chain transfers can complicate attribution but do not automatically erase transaction history. A subsequent independent review could use chain analytics with exchange records and verified wallet attribution to identify exceptions that bypassed the safeguard.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Stored-value card conversion rather than Virtual-asset layering, because stored-value instruments can move purchasing power while distancing it from original cash. Unlike the control for Stored-value card conversion, the more direct design for Virtual-asset layering is to apply virtual-asset service-provider due diligence and suspicious-flow monitoring; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

B:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Cash-intensive front business rather than Virtual-asset layering, because fictitious sales provide a plausible bookkeeping story for introducing criminal cash. Unlike the control for Cash-intensive front business, the more direct design for Virtual-asset layering is to apply virtual-asset service-provider due diligence and suspicious-flow monitoring; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

D:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Bulk currency courier rather than Virtual-asset layering, because physical transportation can shift criminal cash between jurisdictions outside routine bank wires. Unlike the control for Bulk currency courier, the more direct design for Virtual-asset layering is to apply virtual-asset service-provider due diligence and suspicious-flow monitoring; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

Question 351

Two separate review files raise different issues. File A: A repair garage bills for replacement parts not installed after a genuine insured collision. File B: A property owner deliberately starts a fire and later presents it as accidental damage. Which pairing accurately classifies both files?

  1. File A: Inflated auto repair estimate; File B: Staged vehicle collision claim.
  2. File A: Insurance premium diversion; File B: Intentional property fire claim.
  3. File A: Intentional property fire claim; File B: Inflated auto repair estimate.
  4. File A: Inflated auto repair estimate; File B: Intentional property fire claim.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

File A is Inflated auto repair estimate because a real covered loss is enlarged through fictitious repair costs, while File B is Intentional property fire claim because deliberate creation of a loss may defeat coverage and constitutes a different risk from accidental damage. The evidence chains differ: for File A, reviewers should compare billed work with physical inspection and supplier purchase records; for File B, they should coordinate lawful cause-and-origin findings with coverage and ownership evidence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

File B is misidentified as Staged vehicle collision claim instead of Intentional property fire claim. With the proposed pairing Inflated auto repair estimate / Staged vehicle collision claim, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that photographs and parts invoices do not support the paid repair estimate, whereas File B shows that fire origin evidence and financial motives disagree with the reported timeline. For these Inflated auto repair estimate and Intentional property fire claim files, choosing the pair Inflated auto repair estimate / Staged vehicle collision claim would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

B:

File A is misidentified as Insurance premium diversion instead of Inflated auto repair estimate. With the proposed pairing Insurance premium diversion / Intentional property fire claim, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that photographs and parts invoices do not support the paid repair estimate, whereas File B shows that fire origin evidence and financial motives disagree with the reported timeline. For these Inflated auto repair estimate and Intentional property fire claim files, choosing the pair Insurance premium diversion / Intentional property fire claim would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

C:

File A is misidentified as Intentional property fire claim instead of Inflated auto repair estimate; File B is misidentified as Inflated auto repair estimate instead of Intentional property fire claim. With the proposed pairing Intentional property fire claim / Inflated auto repair estimate, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that photographs and parts invoices do not support the paid repair estimate, whereas File B shows that fire origin evidence and financial motives disagree with the reported timeline. For these Inflated auto repair estimate and Intentional property fire claim files, choosing the pair Intentional property fire claim / Inflated auto repair estimate would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

Question 352

Reviewers flag a possible prepaid card load-and-drain issue. Their preliminary finding is: Rapid loads and redemptions share devices and beneficiaries across cards. Which test would best confirm or refute the concern?

  1. Verify beneficiary changes independently and inspect message headers and login records.
  2. Match debit mandates with customer consents and originating entity identifiers.
  3. Compare displayed QR destinations with merchant-controlled account records.
  4. Link card funding source, load time, device identity and redemption trail.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

For the Prepaid card load-and-drain concern, the procedure tests source evidence behind this observation: Rapid loads and redemptions share devices and beneficiaries across cards. This matters because prepaid value can be used to convert unauthorized payments into quickly transferable balances; independent corroboration is necessary before accepting any conclusion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This comparison primarily addresses Business email payment diversion, in which the payment is authorized for a real invoice but settlement instructions are fraudulently replaced; because the present question instead concerns Prepaid card load-and-drain, reviewers should link card funding source, load time, device identity and redemption trail rather than apply a check designed for Business email payment diversion.

B:

This comparison primarily addresses Unauthorized ACH debit, in which the debit exploits the payment rail without the payer's required consent; because the present question instead concerns Prepaid card load-and-drain, reviewers should link card funding source, load time, device identity and redemption trail rather than apply a check designed for Unauthorized ACH debit.

C:

This comparison primarily addresses Fraudulent merchant QR redirect, in which payment redirection changes the destination encoded in a legitimate-looking payment prompt; because the present question instead concerns Prepaid card load-and-drain, reviewers should link card funding source, load time, device identity and redemption trail rather than apply a check designed for Fraudulent merchant QR redirect.

Question 353

The team is assessing a potential malicious browser extension discrepancy. Initial observation: Unapproved extension permissions include access to every page and outbound transfers. Which verification step is most informative?

  1. Compare remote session logs, privileged access records and transfer activity.
  2. Inspect extension inventory, permissions and network destinations.
  3. Analyze request patterns, device reputation and common command signatures.
  4. Correlate challenge frequency and user responses with session details.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

For the Malicious browser extension concern, the procedure tests source evidence behind this observation: Unapproved extension permissions include access to every page and outbound transfers. This matters because browser extensions can misuse broad page-access permissions without a classic email attachment; independent corroboration is necessary before accepting any conclusion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This comparison primarily addresses Remote desktop credential intrusion, in which valid-looking remote sessions can conceal misuse of stolen administrator access; because the present question instead concerns Malicious browser extension, reviewers should inspect extension inventory, permissions and network destinations rather than apply a check designed for Remote desktop credential intrusion.

C:

This comparison primarily addresses Botnet-enabled account attacks, in which a botnet coordinates compromised machines to perform automated abuse at scale; because the present question instead concerns Malicious browser extension, reviewers should inspect extension inventory, permissions and network destinations rather than apply a check designed for Botnet-enabled account attacks.

D:

This comparison primarily addresses MFA-push fatigue attack, in which repeated prompts exploit human approval fatigue rather than cracking the second factor; because the present question instead concerns Malicious browser extension, reviewers should inspect extension inventory, permissions and network destinations rather than apply a check designed for MFA-push fatigue attack.

Question 354

For a review of double-charged public grant costs, which evidence-based warning sign is the most specific?

  1. Business registration, tax and payroll records fail to support the claimed operation.
  2. Benefit rolls conflict with independent vital records and eligibility updates.
  3. Identical time entries and payroll identifiers appear in multiple reimbursement requests.
  4. Independent materials tests disagree with approved completion certificates.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

This observation is a pertinent indicator of Double-charged public grant costs because a real cost becomes fraudulent when recovered more than once from restricted funding sources. The practical corroborating procedure is to reconcile employee time allocation and invoice support across grants; the indicator by itself does not establish intent or error.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The proposed observation fits Fictitious disaster relief business, where crisis support can be abused through fictitious claimants and fabricated losses, rather than the particular mechanism in Double-charged public grant costs. Unlike the clue for Fictitious disaster relief business, the more directly related indicator for Double-charged public grant costs is this: Identical time entries and payroll identifiers appear in multiple reimbursement requests.

B:

The proposed observation fits Ghost public-assistance beneficiaries, where public funds continue flowing to people who should not receive benefits, rather than the particular mechanism in Double-charged public grant costs. Unlike the clue for Ghost public-assistance beneficiaries, the more directly related indicator for Double-charged public grant costs is this: Identical time entries and payroll identifiers appear in multiple reimbursement requests.

D:

The proposed observation fits Substandard public works certification, where taxpayer money pays for specifications that were not actually met, rather than the particular mechanism in Double-charged public grant costs. Unlike the clue for Substandard public works certification, the more directly related indicator for Double-charged public grant costs is this: Identical time entries and payroll identifiers appear in multiple reimbursement requests.

Question 355

The review team observes the following: A credit history exists before the individual reaches normal borrowing age. It seeks one targeted detection step and one preventive measure that address the same underlying vulnerability. Which pairing is best?

  1. Diagnostic: Review failed-login patterns, device fingerprints and successful account access; safeguard: Use strong identity verification and out-of-band checks for high-risk credit applications.
  2. Diagnostic: Correlate telecom SIM-change records with account recovery and transaction history; safeguard: Use age-aware verification and secure dependent identity records.
  3. Diagnostic: Compare date of birth and identity verification data with account origination records; safeguard: Use multifactor authentication and automated attack throttling with credential hygiene.
  4. Diagnostic: Compare date of birth and identity verification data with account origination records; safeguard: Use age-aware verification and secure dependent identity records.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The test addresses Child identity misuse by targeting this observation: A credit history exists before the individual reaches normal borrowing age. The accompanying safeguard—use age-aware verification and secure dependent identity records—counters the same opportunity, so both checking and prevention concern one cause.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The evidence test relates to Credential-stuffing identity abuse, whereas the proposed safeguard protects against Stolen-personal-data loan; neither directly resolves Child identity misuse. Unlike the Credential-stuffing identity abuse test and Stolen-personal-data loan safeguard, the investigation of Child identity misuse requires reviewers to compare date of birth and identity verification data with account origination records, followed by assessment of the matching control point.

B:

The proposed safeguard is relevant to Child identity misuse, but the diagnostic tests SIM-swap account takeover rather than the identified anomaly. That test is aimed at records involving phone-service interruption immediately precedes password resets and account logins; the specified case instead calls for reviewers to compare date of birth and identity verification data with account origination records.

C:

The diagnostic correctly examines Child identity misuse by having reviewers compare date of birth and identity verification data with account origination records, but the safeguard is for Credential-stuffing identity abuse. That prevention step responds to a different mechanism: Reused passwords let attackers impersonate customers through online credential abuse.

Question 356

The organization wants to prevent fraudulent new bank account. Its risk assessment describes: The newly created account is established under false identity to receive or move illicit proceeds. What targeted safeguard should it prioritize?

  1. Limit dormant-account access and require dual authorization for balance movements.
  2. Apply strong transaction authentication and beneficiary-change verification.
  3. Strengthen onboarding checks and monitor early-life unusual account turnover.
  4. Require independent income validation before underwriting approval.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The control directly addresses the failure point in Fraudulent new bank account, since the newly created account is established under false identity to receive or move illicit proceeds. A subsequent independent review could review identity verification, account funding and withdrawal beneficiaries together to identify exceptions that bypassed the safeguard.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Insider customer-account embezzlement rather than Fraudulent new bank account, because an insider exploits entrusted bank access to misappropriate depositor funds. Unlike the control for Insider customer-account embezzlement, the more direct design for Fraudulent new bank account is to strengthen onboarding checks and monitor early-life unusual account turnover; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

B:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Financial-account takeover rather than Fraudulent new bank account, because the account is legitimate but control of its credentials or session has been stolen. Unlike the control for Financial-account takeover, the more direct design for Fraudulent new bank account is to strengthen onboarding checks and monitor early-life unusual account turnover; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

D:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Falsified borrower income rather than Fraudulent new bank account, because borrower misrepresentation distorts credit assessment even before any default. Unlike the control for Falsified borrower income, the more direct design for Fraudulent new bank account is to strengthen onboarding checks and monitor early-life unusual account turnover; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

Question 357

An examination of unauthorized bonus disbursement begins with this observation: Bonus payouts lack approved evaluation and authorization records. Which follow-up procedure gives the most direct evidence?

  1. Verify lodging invoices with approved travel itineraries and actual attendance.
  2. Compare exception payroll components with board-approved bonus rules and signatures.
  3. Compare normalized receipt images and merchant details across claim histories.
  4. Compare termination events and exit records to pay runs and account beneficiaries.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

For the Unauthorized bonus disbursement concern, the procedure tests source evidence behind this observation: Bonus payouts lack approved evaluation and authorization records. This matters because improper one-off payments exploit weak controls over discretionary compensation; independent corroboration is necessary before accepting any conclusion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This comparison primarily addresses Fictitious travel reimbursement, in which the claimant seeks payment for an expense that was never incurred; because the present question instead concerns Unauthorized bonus disbursement, reviewers should compare exception payroll components with board-approved bonus rules and signatures rather than apply a check designed for Fictitious travel reimbursement.

C:

This comparison primarily addresses Duplicate expense reimbursement, in which one real expense is reimbursed more than once, inflating the employee's recovery; because the present question instead concerns Unauthorized bonus disbursement, reviewers should compare exception payroll components with board-approved bonus rules and signatures rather than apply a check designed for Duplicate expense reimbursement.

D:

This comparison primarily addresses Terminated worker retained on payroll, in which continuing pay to a departed employee produces a disbursement with no current employment basis; because the present question instead concerns Unauthorized bonus disbursement, reviewers should compare exception payroll components with board-approved bonus rules and signatures rather than apply a check designed for Terminated worker retained on payroll.

Question 358

The case file describes the following: Users type the genuine bank domain yet are routed to an attacker-hosted imitation due to manipulated name resolution. Which classification best explains the events?

  1. Infostealer browser credential theft
  2. Spear-phishing credential capture
  3. Pharming through DNS manipulation
  4. Ransomware file encryption

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Pharming through DNS manipulation fits the facts because pharming diverts site resolution without requiring victims to click a deceptive message link; the distinguishing observation is that dNS answers point to unauthorized servers despite correct addresses typed by users. To test this interpretation, a reviewer should verify trusted DNS records and correlate resolution history with website certificates.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Infostealer browser credential theft would involve a different sequence from Pharming through DNS manipulation: infostealers harvest authentication secrets for later impersonation and account abuse. Unlike the rejected Infostealer browser credential theft label, the evidence concerns Pharming through DNS manipulation, since dNS answers point to unauthorized servers despite correct addresses typed by users; reviewers should verify trusted DNS records and correlate resolution history with website certificates.

B:

Spear-phishing credential capture would involve a different sequence from Pharming through DNS manipulation: targeted phishing collects credentials by masquerading as a trusted internal communication. Unlike the rejected Spear-phishing credential capture label, the evidence concerns Pharming through DNS manipulation, since dNS answers point to unauthorized servers despite correct addresses typed by users; reviewers should verify trusted DNS records and correlate resolution history with website certificates.

D:

Ransomware file encryption would involve a different sequence from Pharming through DNS manipulation: ransomware denies access through malicious encryption and extortion, not primarily by changing invoice beneficiaries. Unlike the rejected Ransomware file encryption label, the evidence concerns Pharming through DNS manipulation, since dNS answers point to unauthorized servers despite correct addresses typed by users; reviewers should verify trusted DNS records and correlate resolution history with website certificates.

Question 359

A reviewer wants to distinguish gross-profit calculation from adjacent risk patterns. Which observation is the most diagnostic indicator?

  1. The margin calculation changes unexpectedly when cost of goods sold is misstated.
  2. The same transaction receives conflicting treatment because preparers use incompatible rulebooks.
  3. The reported owners' interest does not equal assets less liabilities.
  4. Loan agreements and bank movements show changes in borrowed capital.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

This observation is a pertinent indicator of Gross-profit calculation because gross profit isolates direct goods margin rather than the final earnings after all operating and other costs. The practical corroborating procedure is to match recorded sales and corresponding inventory costs before analyzing gross margin; the indicator by itself does not establish intent or error.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The proposed observation fits Accounting-framework selection, where iFRS and national GAAP are accounting frameworks; their use depends on reporting requirements, not the invoice currency, rather than the particular mechanism in Gross-profit calculation. Unlike the clue for Accounting-framework selection, the more directly related indicator for Gross-profit calculation is this: The margin calculation changes unexpectedly when cost of goods sold is misstated.

C:

The proposed observation fits Equity reconciliation, where equity is the residual interest in assets after deducting liabilities, not a bank balance or revenue figure, rather than the particular mechanism in Gross-profit calculation. Unlike the clue for Equity reconciliation, the more directly related indicator for Gross-profit calculation is this: The margin calculation changes unexpectedly when cost of goods sold is misstated.

D:

The proposed observation fits Financing cash-flow classification, where financing activities describe changes in funding from lenders and owners; classifications of interest can vary by accounting framework, rather than the particular mechanism in Gross-profit calculation. Unlike the clue for Financing cash-flow classification, the more directly related indicator for Gross-profit calculation is this: The margin calculation changes unexpectedly when cost of goods sold is misstated.

Question 360

The risk team has identified the following pump-and-dump stock promotion exposure: False hype can induce investor purchases while manipulators unload inflated positions. Which proposed prevention step is most effective?

  1. Enforce personal-trading controls and surveillance around sensitive customer orders.
  2. Maintain insider-trading restrictions, preclearance and confidentiality controls.
  3. Monitor promotional claims and suspicious trading around low-liquidity securities.
  4. Require comprehensive disclosure diligence and independent review of material risks.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The control directly addresses the failure point in Pump-and-dump stock promotion, since false hype can induce investor purchases while manipulators unload inflated positions. A subsequent independent review could correlate promotional communications with trading accounts and beneficial ownership to identify exceptions that bypassed the safeguard.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Broker front-running client order rather than Pump-and-dump stock promotion, because misusing confidential customer-order knowledge for personal gain creates market-abuse and conflict risks. Unlike the control for Broker front-running client order, the more direct design for Pump-and-dump stock promotion is to monitor promotional claims and suspicious trading around low-liquidity securities; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

B:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Material nonpublic information trading rather than Pump-and-dump stock promotion, because trading on material information not publicly available may breach insider-trading rules depending on the jurisdiction and duties involved. Unlike the control for Material nonpublic information trading, the more direct design for Pump-and-dump stock promotion is to monitor promotional claims and suspicious trading around low-liquidity securities; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

D:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Misleading offering prospectus rather than Pump-and-dump stock promotion, because omission of decision-useful facts can mislead investors even where some published numbers are accurate. Unlike the control for Misleading offering prospectus, the more direct design for Pump-and-dump stock promotion is to monitor promotional claims and suspicious trading around low-liquidity securities; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

Certified Fraud Examiner - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes (CFE - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes) Practice Tests