ACFE CFE - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes (Certified Fraud Examiner - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes) Practice Test 20

Question 190

The case file describes the following: An unregistered intermediary repeatedly solicits securities investors and receives transaction-based commissions where registration is legally required. Which classification best explains the events?

  1. False sustainability disclosures
  2. Broker front-running client order
  3. Material nonpublic information trading
  4. Unregistered brokerage solicitation

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Unregistered brokerage solicitation fits the facts because securities-related compensation and solicitation can trigger registration obligations under relevant laws; the distinguishing observation is that commission records show ongoing securities placement activity without appropriate registration evidence. To test this interpretation, a reviewer should compare business activities and compensation against applicable regulator registrations.

Incorrect Answers

A:

False sustainability disclosures would involve a different sequence from Unregistered brokerage solicitation: nonfinancial representations can deceive securities investors when inaccurate or unsupported. Unlike the rejected False sustainability disclosures label, the evidence concerns Unregistered brokerage solicitation, since commission records show ongoing securities placement activity without appropriate registration evidence; reviewers should compare business activities and compensation against applicable regulator registrations.

B:

Broker front-running client order would involve a different sequence from Unregistered brokerage solicitation: misusing confidential customer-order knowledge for personal gain creates market-abuse and conflict risks. Unlike the rejected Broker front-running client order label, the evidence concerns Unregistered brokerage solicitation, since commission records show ongoing securities placement activity without appropriate registration evidence; reviewers should compare business activities and compensation against applicable regulator registrations.

C:

Material nonpublic information trading would involve a different sequence from Unregistered brokerage solicitation: trading on material information not publicly available may breach insider-trading rules depending on the jurisdiction and duties involved. Unlike the rejected Material nonpublic information trading label, the evidence concerns Unregistered brokerage solicitation, since commission records show ongoing securities placement activity without appropriate registration evidence; reviewers should compare business activities and compensation against applicable regulator registrations.

Question 191

Reviewers flag a possible manipulated commission sales issue. Their preliminary finding is: Commission payments coincide with rapidly canceled or uncollected sales. Which test would best confirm or refute the concern?

  1. Reconcile commission calculations with final customer payments and returns.
  2. Compare payroll overtime with access, shift and work-order evidence.
  3. Inspect change logs and independently confirm altered deposit instructions with workers.
  4. Compare termination events and exit records to pay runs and account beneficiaries.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

For the Manipulated commission sales concern, the procedure tests source evidence behind this observation: Commission payments coincide with rapidly canceled or uncollected sales. This matters because compensation is extracted through false performance metrics rather than fake employees; independent corroboration is necessary before accepting any conclusion.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This comparison primarily addresses Falsified overtime payroll, in which false hours increase payments to real employees without corresponding services; because the present question instead concerns Manipulated commission sales, reviewers should reconcile commission calculations with final customer payments and returns rather than apply a check designed for Falsified overtime payroll.

C:

This comparison primarily addresses Payroll direct-deposit diversion, in which a genuine employee's wages are redirected by altering settlement data; because the present question instead concerns Manipulated commission sales, reviewers should reconcile commission calculations with final customer payments and returns rather than apply a check designed for Payroll direct-deposit diversion.

D:

This comparison primarily addresses Terminated worker retained on payroll, in which continuing pay to a departed employee produces a disbursement with no current employment basis; because the present question instead concerns Manipulated commission sales, reviewers should reconcile commission calculations with final customer payments and returns rather than apply a check designed for Terminated worker retained on payroll.

Question 192

The case file describes the following: A provider certifies that expensive equipment is medically required when records show no qualifying condition. Which classification best explains the events?

  1. Medical service upcoding
  2. Prescribing referral kickback
  3. Unbundled procedure billing
  4. False medical necessity certification

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

False medical necessity certification fits the facts because claims fraud can arise from false eligibility or necessity rather than nonexistent delivery; the distinguishing observation is that repeated medical-necessity forms use boilerplate unsupported by examinations. To test this interpretation, a reviewer should review medical records and criteria supporting prescribed devices.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Medical service upcoding would involve a different sequence from False medical necessity certification: upcoding inflates payment by assigning a code for a more expensive service than was delivered. Unlike the rejected Medical service upcoding label, the evidence concerns False medical necessity certification, since repeated medical-necessity forms use boilerplate unsupported by examinations; reviewers should review medical records and criteria supporting prescribed devices.

B:

Prescribing referral kickback would involve a different sequence from False medical necessity certification: financial inducements can corrupt medical decisions even when treatment is actually delivered. Unlike the rejected Prescribing referral kickback label, the evidence concerns False medical necessity certification, since repeated medical-necessity forms use boilerplate unsupported by examinations; reviewers should review medical records and criteria supporting prescribed devices.

C:

Unbundled procedure billing would involve a different sequence from False medical necessity certification: splitting a bundled service into extra claim lines can produce unjustified reimbursement. Unlike the rejected Unbundled procedure billing label, the evidence concerns False medical necessity certification, since repeated medical-necessity forms use boilerplate unsupported by examinations; reviewers should review medical records and criteria supporting prescribed devices.

Question 193

Two separate review files raise different issues. File A: A manufacturer pays cash to acquire production machinery rather than consumable supplies. File B: A business receives proceeds from a new bank loan and later repays part of the principal. Which pairing accurately classifies both files?

  1. File A: Equity reconciliation; File B: Financing cash-flow classification.
  2. File A: Investing cash-flow classification; File B: Operating cash-flow classification.
  3. File A: Financing cash-flow classification; File B: Investing cash-flow classification.
  4. File A: Investing cash-flow classification; File B: Financing cash-flow classification.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

File A is Investing cash-flow classification because buying plant equipment is generally an investing cash outflow, not a routine operating payment, while File B is Financing cash-flow classification because financing activities describe changes in funding from lenders and owners; classifications of interest can vary by accounting framework. The evidence chains differ: for File A, reviewers should trace fixed-asset additions and bank settlements to the investing section of the cash-flow statement; for File B, they should reconcile borrowing and principal-repayment transactions to financing cash flows.

Incorrect Answers

A:

File A is misidentified as Equity reconciliation instead of Investing cash-flow classification. With the proposed pairing Equity reconciliation / Financing cash-flow classification, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that the outflow bought a long-lived productive asset, whereas File B shows that loan agreements and bank movements show changes in borrowed capital. For these Investing cash-flow classification and Financing cash-flow classification files, choosing the pair Equity reconciliation / Financing cash-flow classification would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

B:

File B is misidentified as Operating cash-flow classification instead of Financing cash-flow classification. With the proposed pairing Investing cash-flow classification / Operating cash-flow classification, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that the outflow bought a long-lived productive asset, whereas File B shows that loan agreements and bank movements show changes in borrowed capital. For these Investing cash-flow classification and Financing cash-flow classification files, choosing the pair Investing cash-flow classification / Operating cash-flow classification would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

C:

File A is misidentified as Financing cash-flow classification instead of Investing cash-flow classification; File B is misidentified as Investing cash-flow classification instead of Financing cash-flow classification. With the proposed pairing Financing cash-flow classification / Investing cash-flow classification, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that the outflow bought a long-lived productive asset, whereas File B shows that loan agreements and bank movements show changes in borrowed capital. For these Investing cash-flow classification and Financing cash-flow classification files, choosing the pair Financing cash-flow classification / Investing cash-flow classification would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

Question 194

Reviewers flag a possible guaranteed crypto yield scam issue. Their preliminary finding is: Claimed yields lack verifiable trading activity and withdrawals stop during a surge in new deposits. Which test would best confirm or refute the concern?

  1. Review account authority, beneficiary connections and contemporaneous consent evidence.
  2. Verify the awarding organization independently and follow payments to recipients.
  3. Link relationship communications with payment destinations and platform authenticity.
  4. Verify platform licensing and wallet flows instead of trusting account screenshots.
  5. Verify asset custody, independent reserves and the reality of return generation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

E:

For the Guaranteed crypto yield scam concern, the procedure tests source evidence behind this observation: Claimed yields lack verifiable trading activity and withdrawals stop during a surge in new deposits. This matters because unsubstantiated investment guarantees can camouflage misappropriation rather than legitimate market profits; independent corroboration is necessary before accepting any conclusion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This comparison primarily addresses Elder caregiver financial exploitation, in which abuse of trust or access can divert assets from a vulnerable person without a public investment pitch; because the present question instead concerns Guaranteed crypto yield scam, reviewers should verify asset custody, independent reserves and the reality of return generation rather than apply a check designed for Elder caregiver financial exploitation.

B:

This comparison primarily addresses Advance-fee lottery fraud, in which the promise of future value is used to extract an immediate fee without a real award; because the present question instead concerns Guaranteed crypto yield scam, reviewers should verify asset custody, independent reserves and the reality of return generation rather than apply a check designed for Advance-fee lottery fraud.

C:

This comparison primarily addresses Online romance investment grooming, in which the fraud uses emotional trust to induce transfers, often without the promised investment existing; because the present question instead concerns Guaranteed crypto yield scam, reviewers should verify asset custody, independent reserves and the reality of return generation rather than apply a check designed for Online romance investment grooming.

D:

This comparison primarily addresses Pig-butchering investment scam, in which long-form social engineering combines relationship grooming with fabricated investment performance; because the present question instead concerns Guaranteed crypto yield scam, reviewers should verify asset custody, independent reserves and the reality of return generation rather than apply a check designed for Pig-butchering investment scam.

Question 195

Reviewers flag a possible conflict through confidential specifications issue. Their preliminary finding is: The favored bid mirrors nonpublic scoring language before tender release. Which test would best confirm or refute the concern?

  1. Compare certification dates with quality results and inspector-vendor relationships.
  2. Cross-check procurement decisions, vendor performance and unexplained employee benefits.
  3. Trace third-party payment flows and ownership while comparing award rationale.
  4. Compare access history to restricted procurement files with bidder drafts and benefits.
  5. Compare payments and customs records with government fee schedules.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

For the Conflict through confidential specifications concern, the procedure tests source evidence behind this observation: The favored bid mirrors nonpublic scoring language before tender release. This matters because disclosure of privileged tender information trades an entrusted advantage for private benefit; independent corroboration is necessary before accepting any conclusion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This comparison primarily addresses Bribe to overlook inspections, in which a corrupt payment changes official judgment to allow nonconforming work; because the present question instead concerns Conflict through confidential specifications, reviewers should compare access history to restricted procurement files with bidder drafts and benefits rather than apply a check designed for Bribe to overlook inspections.

B:

This comparison primarily addresses Supplier kickback for selection, in which a kickback rewards an official for steering organizational business rather than for legitimate services; because the present question instead concerns Conflict through confidential specifications, reviewers should compare access history to restricted procurement files with bidder drafts and benefits rather than apply a check designed for Supplier kickback for selection.

C:

This comparison primarily addresses Vendor-funded political favor, in which indirect benefits can constitute corruption when used to induce improper contract decisions; because the present question instead concerns Conflict through confidential specifications, reviewers should compare access history to restricted procurement files with bidder drafts and benefits rather than apply a check designed for Vendor-funded political favor.

E:

This comparison primarily addresses Unapproved facilitation payment, in which a privately directed payment to influence routine official action can be corrupt despite its small amount; because the present question instead concerns Conflict through confidential specifications, reviewers should compare access history to restricted procurement files with bidder drafts and benefits rather than apply a check designed for Unapproved facilitation payment.

Question 196

The risk team has identified the following false consumption-tax input credit exposure: False input credits reduce remitted VAT or generate improper refunds. Which proposed prevention step is most effective?

  1. Verify input-tax eligibility and reconcile invoice data to actual transactions.
  2. Maintain complete revenue records and reconcile tax declarations with books.
  3. Require substantiation and independent review of high-risk deductions.
  4. Use identity-proofing and verify anomalous refund-account changes.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The control directly addresses the failure point in False consumption-tax input credit, since false input credits reduce remitted VAT or generate improper refunds. A subsequent independent review could cross-match purchase invoices and tax registrations with supplier records to identify exceptions that bypassed the safeguard.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Unreported cash taxable income rather than False consumption-tax input credit, because knowingly concealing taxable receipts can constitute tax evasion rather than lawful tax planning. Unlike the control for Unreported cash taxable income, the more direct design for False consumption-tax input credit is to verify input-tax eligibility and reconcile invoice data to actual transactions; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

C:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Fabricated deductible business cost rather than False consumption-tax input credit, because a fictitious expense reduces reported taxable income without a genuine economic cost. Unlike the control for Fabricated deductible business cost, the more direct design for False consumption-tax input credit is to verify input-tax eligibility and reconcile invoice data to actual transactions; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

D:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Stolen-identity tax return rather than False consumption-tax input credit, because refund fraud uses another person's tax identity rather than understating the criminal's own income. Unlike the control for Stolen-identity tax return, the more direct design for False consumption-tax input credit is to verify input-tax eligibility and reconcile invoice data to actual transactions; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

Question 197

Two separate review files raise different issues. File A: A bookkeeper issues an unauthorized check and codes it to a routine expense to hide the payment. File B: A person with signature authority issues company checks to the person's own controlled entity. Which pairing accurately classifies both files?

  1. File A: Authorized-maker self-payment; File B: Concealed check diversion.
  2. File A: Concealed check diversion; File B: Altered check payee.
  3. File A: ACH beneficiary substitution; File B: Authorized-maker self-payment.
  4. File A: Concealed check diversion; File B: Authorized-maker self-payment.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

File A is Concealed check diversion because the cash leaves via an unauthorized payment camouflaged by accounting classification, while File B is Authorized-maker self-payment because authority to sign does not confer permission to take company funds for personal use. The evidence chains differ: for File A, reviewers should trace ledger entries and check numbers to cleared bank images and approvals; for File B, they should compare signers and beneficiaries with employee conflict declarations and contracts.

Incorrect Answers

A:

File A is misidentified as Authorized-maker self-payment instead of Concealed check diversion; File B is misidentified as Concealed check diversion instead of Authorized-maker self-payment. With the proposed pairing Authorized-maker self-payment / Concealed check diversion, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that bank images identify a different beneficiary than the expense ledger suggests, whereas File B shows that payments to related beneficiaries lack independent authorization or economic support. For these Concealed check diversion and Authorized-maker self-payment files, choosing the pair Authorized-maker self-payment / Concealed check diversion would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

B:

File B is misidentified as Altered check payee instead of Authorized-maker self-payment. With the proposed pairing Concealed check diversion / Altered check payee, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that bank images identify a different beneficiary than the expense ledger suggests, whereas File B shows that payments to related beneficiaries lack independent authorization or economic support. For these Concealed check diversion and Authorized-maker self-payment files, choosing the pair Concealed check diversion / Altered check payee would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

C:

File A is misidentified as ACH beneficiary substitution instead of Concealed check diversion. With the proposed pairing ACH beneficiary substitution / Authorized-maker self-payment, the distinction is substantive: File A shows that bank images identify a different beneficiary than the expense ledger suggests, whereas File B shows that payments to related beneficiaries lack independent authorization or economic support. For these Concealed check diversion and Authorized-maker self-payment files, choosing the pair ACH beneficiary substitution / Authorized-maker self-payment would misdirect the review away from at least one of these mechanisms.

Question 198

A process owner is assessing safeguards for alternative remittance settlement. The mechanism is: Value transfer can occur through broker-ledgers and net settlements, whether legitimate or abused. Which control addresses it most directly?

  1. Apply virtual-asset service-provider due diligence and suspicious-flow monitoring.
  2. Identify and verify beneficial owners under applicable customer-due-diligence rules.
  3. Monitor aggregated stored-value activity and apply appropriate identification limits.
  4. Apply licensing and risk controls to remittance networks based on local requirements.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The control directly addresses the failure point in Alternative remittance settlement, since value transfer can occur through broker-ledgers and net settlements, whether legitimate or abused. A subsequent independent review could reconcile sender receipts, broker obligations and final beneficiary payouts to identify exceptions that bypassed the safeguard.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Virtual-asset layering rather than Alternative remittance settlement, because multiple on-chain transfers can complicate attribution but do not automatically erase transaction history. Unlike the control for Virtual-asset layering, the more direct design for Alternative remittance settlement is to apply licensing and risk controls to remittance networks based on local requirements; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

B:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Opaque beneficial-ownership layers rather than Alternative remittance settlement, because legal-entity layers can conceal who controls funds and defeat superficial name-only screening. Unlike the control for Opaque beneficial-ownership layers, the more direct design for Alternative remittance settlement is to apply licensing and risk controls to remittance networks based on local requirements; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

C:

This safeguard is directed primarily at Stored-value card conversion rather than Alternative remittance settlement, because stored-value instruments can move purchasing power while distancing it from original cash. Unlike the control for Stored-value card conversion, the more direct design for Alternative remittance settlement is to apply licensing and risk controls to remittance networks based on local requirements; a different safeguard cannot substitute for it.

Question 199

The review team observes the following: Subcontractor bills have no credible staff or deliverables despite significant markup. It seeks one targeted detection step and one preventive measure that address the same underlying vulnerability. Which pairing is best?

  1. Diagnostic: Reconcile signed receiving logs and physical counts with invoices; safeguard: Use documented scoring rubrics, panel moderation and independent challenge.
  2. Diagnostic: Reperform score calculations and inspect evaluator conflicts and supporting notes; safeguard: Require approval of subcontractor legitimacy and documented deliverable acceptance.
  3. Diagnostic: Verify subcontractor ownership, labor records and completed outputs; safeguard: Track contract expiries and require legal procurement review of extension authority.
  4. Diagnostic: Verify subcontractor ownership, labor records and completed outputs; safeguard: Require approval of subcontractor legitimacy and documented deliverable acceptance.
  5. Diagnostic: Compare amendments with original contract clauses, approval authority and renewal limits; safeguard: Use independent quantity verification and three-way matching.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The test addresses Sham subcontractor pass-through by targeting this observation: Subcontractor bills have no credible staff or deliverables despite significant markup. The accompanying safeguard—require approval of subcontractor legitimacy and documented deliverable acceptance—counters the same opportunity, so both checking and prevention concern one cause.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The evidence test relates to Short delivery on public contract, whereas the proposed safeguard protects against Collusive bid-evaluation scoring; neither directly resolves Sham subcontractor pass-through. Unlike the Short delivery on public contract test and Collusive bid-evaluation scoring safeguard, the investigation of Sham subcontractor pass-through requires reviewers to verify subcontractor ownership, labor records and completed outputs, followed by assessment of the matching control point.

B:

The proposed safeguard is relevant to Sham subcontractor pass-through, but the diagnostic tests Collusive bid-evaluation scoring rather than the identified anomaly. That test is aimed at records involving scoring notes and objective evidence disagree while one bidder receives unexplained advantages; the specified case instead calls for reviewers to verify subcontractor ownership, labor records and completed outputs.

C:

The diagnostic correctly examines Sham subcontractor pass-through by having reviewers verify subcontractor ownership, labor records and completed outputs, but the safeguard is for Unauthorized contract extension. That prevention step responds to a different mechanism: Improper continuation can give an incumbent business without the required competition.

E:

The evidence test relates to Unauthorized contract extension, whereas the proposed safeguard protects against Short delivery on public contract; neither directly resolves Sham subcontractor pass-through. Unlike the Unauthorized contract extension test and Short delivery on public contract safeguard, the investigation of Sham subcontractor pass-through requires reviewers to verify subcontractor ownership, labor records and completed outputs, followed by assessment of the matching control point.

Question 200

An examination of stored-value card conversion begins with this observation: Repeated card purchases and redemptions are connected across nominally unrelated buyers. Which follow-up procedure gives the most direct evidence?

  1. Link funding methods, card serials and redemption beneficiaries.
  2. Follow control and ownership links to natural persons using reliable independent evidence.
  3. Use chain analytics with exchange records and verified wallet attribution.
  4. Reconcile sender receipts, broker obligations and final beneficiary payouts.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

For the Stored-value card conversion concern, the procedure tests source evidence behind this observation: Repeated card purchases and redemptions are connected across nominally unrelated buyers. This matters because stored-value instruments can move purchasing power while distancing it from original cash; independent corroboration is necessary before accepting any conclusion.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This comparison primarily addresses Opaque beneficial-ownership layers, in which legal-entity layers can conceal who controls funds and defeat superficial name-only screening; because the present question instead concerns Stored-value card conversion, reviewers should link funding methods, card serials and redemption beneficiaries rather than apply a check designed for Opaque beneficial-ownership layers.

C:

This comparison primarily addresses Virtual-asset layering, in which multiple on-chain transfers can complicate attribution but do not automatically erase transaction history; because the present question instead concerns Stored-value card conversion, reviewers should link funding methods, card serials and redemption beneficiaries rather than apply a check designed for Virtual-asset layering.

D:

This comparison primarily addresses Alternative remittance settlement, in which value transfer can occur through broker-ledgers and net settlements, whether legitimate or abused; because the present question instead concerns Stored-value card conversion, reviewers should link funding methods, card serials and redemption beneficiaries rather than apply a check designed for Alternative remittance settlement.

Certified Fraud Examiner - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes (CFE - Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes) Practice Tests