AAPC CPC (Certified Professional Coder) Practice Test 78

Question 770

An urgent-care physician signs one note diagnosing diverticulitis, but the same encounter’s signed discharge summary calls the illness viral gastroenteritis. There is no clarification or definitive reconciled assessment. What should the coder do before final diagnosis assignment?

  1. Automatically select diverticulitis because it is the more serious condition
  2. Automatically select viral gastroenteritis because it is in the later document
  3. Report both incompatible diagnoses as separately confirmed illnesses
  4. Query the provider to reconcile the conflicting final diagnoses

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Two signed assessments materially disagree about the treated illness. A nonleading clarification is appropriate rather than choosing one incompatible diagnosis by guesswork.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Clinical seriousness is not a substitute for provider reconciliation. Coding the more severe diagnosis from contradictory notes can produce unsupported claims.

B:

Chronology alone does not reliably determine the intended final diagnosis when signed documentation remains contradictory.

C:

The note conflict does not establish two concurrent diseases. Coding both without clarification may misrepresent the clinician’s assessment.

Question 771

The patient attends for a scheduled therapeutic procedure for a known diagnosis. Which guideline addresses this exact scenario?

  1. Diagnostic imaging interpreted
  2. Therapeutic-service encounter
  3. Aftercare encounter following completed treatment
  4. Observation without confirmed disease

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

For outpatient therapeutic services, the condition chiefly responsible for the treatment is ordinarily first-listed, with other actively managed conditions as appropriate.

Incorrect Answers

A:

When the definitive diagnostic-test interpretation is available, report the confirmed diagnosis rather than coding only the symptom prompting imaging; to select this alternative the report would need confirmed imaging finding replacing symptom-only coding, whereas it identifies diagnosis driving outpatient therapy.

C:

In Aftercare encounter following completed treatment, the work centers on routine follow-up care during recovery rather than the present diagnostic, observation, active treatment, or surgical indication; instead, the report records diagnosis driving outpatient therapy, which supports a different classification.

D:

Do not report suspected myocardial infarction as established in an outpatient encounter; the symptom or other documented reason remains reportable at the certainty supported; the reported work involves diagnosis driving outpatient therapy and does not establish symptom-based coding following negative outpatient workup.

Question 772

A knee arthroscopy reveals a focal full-thickness cartilage defect and intact menisci. The surgeon makes small controlled perforations into subchondral bone to stimulate marrow repair, rather than smoothing cartilage only. Which technique is described?

  1. Arthroscopic marrow-stimulation microfracture
  2. Simple arthroscopic chondroplasty without marrow penetration
  3. Arthroscopic osteochondral graft implantation into the cartilage defect
  4. Arthroscopic partial meniscectomy

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Small subchondral perforations encourage marrow-derived repair tissue to fill the cartilage defect. This differs from trimming a torn meniscus or simply smoothing cartilage.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Chondroplasty smooths or debrides articular surfaces, but does not include the characteristic perforations into subchondral bone.

C:

An osteochondral graft transfers or implants replacement tissue. The surgeon instead perforates the subchondral plate to stimulate marrow-based healing without placing a graft.

D:

Meniscectomy removes damaged meniscal tissue. Both menisci are intact and no meniscal fragment was resected. The defect was articular cartilage, with no meniscal resection described.

Question 773

An antepartum condition is documented during week 24 of an otherwise ongoing pregnancy. What documentation rule controls the classification?

  1. Gestational week assignment
  2. Trimester specificity
  3. Postpartum period
  4. Newborn birth record

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Obstetric coding frequently distinguishes trimester, which should be assigned using gestational timing documented in the record. Week-specific additional codes may be required.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The required element for Gestational week assignment is use of documented weeks of gestation to support an additional gestational-week code when applicable; what is described is trimester-specific pregnancy diagnosis, without evidence for the alternative feature.

C:

Chapter 15 includes postpartum-specific coding where applicable; A postpartum condition is not automatically categorized as an antepartum complication; maternal condition arising in puerperium is not recorded; the evidence points to trimester-specific pregnancy diagnosis.

D:

Birth-status codes from category Z38 belong on the newborn's birth record, not the mother's record or a later receiving-hospital transfer; the reported work involves trimester-specific pregnancy diagnosis and does not establish initial newborn delivery-status record.

Question 774

A urologist uses a cystoscope to grasp an existing ureteral stent and withdraw it. No new stent is inserted and there is no stone fragmentation or bladder biopsy. Which completed service is documented?

  1. Cystoscopic insertion of a new ureteral stent
  2. Cystoscopy with bladder-mucosa biopsy
  3. Ureteroscopic laser treatment of a calculus
  4. Cystoscopic removal of an indwelling ureteral stent

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The only device intervention is retrieval of the previous stent. The record should not be inflated into fresh insertion or treatment of a calculus.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A new catheter would need to be advanced and left in the ureter. The note explicitly records removal only. The existing device was retrieved and no new catheter remained after the procedure.

B:

The physician grasps a device but takes no bladder tissue. Stent removal cannot be substituted with a biopsy code.

C:

No ureteroscope is used to fragment a stone, and no laser lithotripsy is documented. The actual intervention did not fragment or destroy a urinary calculus.

Question 775

The provider confirms a diagnosis but omits detail needed to select a valid more specific subtype. How should the clinician’s documentation be interpreted for coding?

  1. Tabular List validation
  2. Code-set guideline-only selection
  3. Unspecified code when documentation lacks detail
  4. ICD-10-CM 'with' convention

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

An unspecified code can be accurate when supported documentation lacks further clinical detail; coders must not infer specificity from testing or assumptions. Clarification can improve specificity when appropriate.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Final code assignment requires checking the Tabular List after index retrieval; A listed index entry alone does not establish valid complete reporting; this clinical evidence establishes confirmed diagnosis without available subtype information, not tabular notes that govern final code form.

B:

Code-set guideline-only selection corresponds to choosing a final diagnosis code solely from a narrative guideline without the required index-and-tabular confirmation; the record specifies confirmed diagnosis without available subtype information. Those details establish different classifications.

D:

ICD-10-CM may presume the linked relationship for indexed 'with' terms unless documentation expressly states otherwise or a guideline specifies a different rule; the distinction is the record’s confirmed diagnosis without available subtype information versus the alternative of indexed disease-manifestation relationship under 'with'.

Question 776

During flexible bronchoscopy, the operator obtains a small bronchial washing from a proximal airway and documents no wedge-positioned segmental fluid lavage or recovery from an alveolar segment. How should the sampling technique be classified?

  1. Transbronchial lung tissue biopsy
  2. Formal bronchoalveolar lavage procedure
  3. Diagnostic bronchoscopy with bronchial washing as performed
  4. Bronchoscopic endobronchial lesion excision

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Bronchial washing can be part of the diagnostic bronchoscopy service. The absence of an alveolar-segment lavage technique matters for selecting the correct procedure.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A transbronchial biopsy requires actual tissue sampling through biopsy instruments. No lung tissue is removed in this washing-only record.

B:

BAL involves instillation and retrieval of fluid from the distal alveolar region under a defined approach, not merely a proximal bronchial wash.

D:

Excision removes a visible lesion. The clinician sampled airway secretions and did not cut or remove tissue. Only a washing specimen for microbiology was recovered from the airway lumen.

Question 777

At the end of an outpatient visit for cough, the physician reviews a negative chest film and signs a definitive diagnosis of acute bronchitis. Pneumonia had been considered but is not diagnosed. Which diagnosis is supported?

  1. Unconfirmed pneumonia as the final diagnosis
  2. Cough alone with no definitive disease diagnosis
  3. Pneumonia plus bronchitis as two confirmed concurrent infections
  4. Confirmed acute bronchitis

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The final provider assessment establishes bronchitis as the reason treated. An earlier differential diagnosis of pneumonia does not override the definitive documented conclusion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Outpatient uncertain conditions are not generally coded as established. The treating physician specifically did not confirm pneumonia.

B:

Symptoms can be first-listed when no diagnosis is established; here the clinician supplied a definitive acute bronchitis diagnosis.

C:

Only bronchitis was confirmed. Coding a second disease solely because it was considered would inflate the documented illness burden.

Question 778

Under ultrasound guidance a thyroid lesion is sampled with a cutting core needle, yielding intact tissue cylinders for histologic sections. The procedure note does not describe a thin-needle cellular aspirate. Which specimen/procedure distinction matters?

  1. Open incisional thyroid-tissue biopsy through a neck incision
  2. Complete thyroid lobectomy for surgical pathology
  3. Core-needle tissue biopsy with histologic examination
  4. Fine-needle aspiration cytology of dispersed cells

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

An intact core preserves tissue architecture for histopathology. This is not equivalent to smears of free cells obtained by a conventional fine-needle aspiration.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An open biopsy requires surgical exposure and removal of thyroid tissue through an incision. The note specifies a percutaneous, ultrasound-guided core needle method.

B:

A core biopsy removes small samples, not the entire thyroid lobe. No open or endoscopic lobar excision is recorded.

D:

FNA usually collects cellular material by aspiration. The record explicitly describes intact cylindrical tissue cores harvested with a cutting needle.

Question 779

A chemotherapy infusion is ordered, but the oncologist cancels treatment before any drug is administered because of an acute concern. Staff access and flush the implanted port; no antineoplastic agent enters the line. Which service must not be inferred?

  1. Report a sequential chemotherapy infusion after the first drug
  2. Do not code a chemotherapy administration that never occurred
  3. Report a completed initial chemotherapy infusion
  4. Report a chemotherapy intravenous push for the accessed port

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The planned chemotherapy was not delivered. Any billable maintenance, assessment, or other actually performed work must be assessed separately rather than treating the order as an infusion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

No first or subsequent antineoplastic drug was infused, so an additional chemotherapy-administration service is also unsupported.

C:

Chemotherapy administration requires drug delivery, not merely an order or access to a venous port. The note expressly records cancellation before administration.

D:

Flushing vascular access does not constitute an IV push of a chemotherapy agent. The planned drug was never administered.

Question 780

A patient with longstanding hypertension and CKD stage 4 is hospitalized with a separately diagnosed acute kidney injury from dehydration. The physician does not state that chronic kidney disease is unrelated to hypertension. Which diagnosis framework is supported?

  1. Assume acute kidney injury is automatically hypertensive kidney disease
  2. Code essential hypertension alone and omit chronic and acute renal disease
  3. Code only CKD stage 4 and disregard hypertension
  4. Hypertensive CKD with its documented stage plus the separately diagnosed AKI as appropriate

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The hypertension–CKD relationship is generally presumed under ICD-10-CM unless documented unrelated. A separately confirmed acute kidney injury should not be erased by the chronic-stage code.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The CKD linkage convention does not make every separate acute renal injury a hypertension manifestation. Here the AKI is specifically attributed to dehydration.

B:

I10 alone would leave out the documented CKD stage and AKI that affected care during the hospitalization. The chart explicitly identifies both stages of renal impairment, chronic and acute, as active clinical problems.

C:

The record supports hypertension and CKD together; dropping the hypertension-related coding ignores the applicable presumed chronic relationship.

Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Practice Tests