AAPC CPC (Certified Professional Coder) Practice Test 57

Question 560

A patient completed curative resection and adjuvant treatment years ago. The surveillance visit finds no recurrent or residual tumor and no cancer-directed therapy is given. What diagnosis representation is supported?

  1. A secondary metastatic cancer code without any evidence of metastasis
  2. History of the treated malignancy with appropriate follow-up context
  3. An active primary malignancy code despite no current disease
  4. An encounter-for-chemotherapy diagnosis despite no infusion

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

When the primary cancer has been eradicated, no longer exists at the site, and no further treatment is directed there, personal-history and follow-up coding may be appropriate.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Surveillance does not establish metastatic spread. A secondary malignancy needs its own confirmed documentation.

C:

Active malignancy coding is not justified solely by a remote treated cancer when the record establishes no current disease or treatment.

D:

The visit is surveillance rather than drug administration. A chemotherapy encounter code cannot be inferred from historic treatment.

Question 561

An orthopedic surgeon provides active treatment and reduction of a fracture weeks after the original injury. What is the appropriate coding convention for these facts?

  1. Initial injury encounter
  2. Subsequent injury encounter
  3. Injury sequela classification
  4. External cause place

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Injury seventh-character A often means active treatment, not necessarily the patient's first visit. Timing alone cannot establish subsequent-healing status.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A subsequent injury encounter generally reflects routine care during healing; it does not describe a new trauma or an unrelated late residual effect; the chart records active treatment phase of injury rather than healing-phase follow-up of injury.

C:

The required element for Injury sequela classification is residual effect after the acute injury and routine healing phase have ended, not active or subsequent healing encounters or circumstance codes; what is described is active treatment phase of injury, without evidence for the alternative feature.

D:

A place-of-occurrence code gives contextual information where required or appropriate; it does not replace a fall-mechanism code or injury diagnosis; the documented detail of active treatment phase of injury prevents classifying it as location of accident occurrence.

Question 562

Throat testing and physician assessment establish streptococcal infection. Which choice reflects the diagnostic specificity available?

  1. Confirmed COVID-19
  2. Acute otitis media
  3. Asymptomatic HIV infection status
  4. Streptococcal pharyngitis

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A documented streptococcal pharyngitis is more specific than unspecified sore throat or viral pharyngitis. Do not assume the organism solely from exudate.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A current confirmed COVID-19 illness uses the applicable active infection code; suspected exposure and a historical past infection require different reasoning; this clinical evidence establishes confirmed strep throat infection, not clinically established current COVID infection.

B:

The required element for Acute otitis media is clinician-confirmed infection of the middle ear, not the documented upper-respiratory or throat infection or virus status; what is described is confirmed strep throat infection, without evidence for the alternative feature.

C:

Asymptomatic HIV status follows distinct guideline criteria from symptomatic HIV disease; the mere positivity does not automatically imply an opportunistic complication; confirmed HIV without HIV-related illness is not recorded; the evidence points to confirmed strep throat infection.

Question 563

A thin sheet containing epidermis and part of dermis is harvested from the thigh to cover a defect. What kind of surgical work has been documented?

  1. Epidermal autograft
  2. Full-thickness skin graft
  3. Split-thickness autograft
  4. Local rotation flap transfer

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Split-thickness grafting moves epidermis with partial dermis, allowing donor-site reepithelialization. Document recipient area, donor considerations, and relevant code instructions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Epidermal grafting uses skin epidermis rather than a deep dermal graft; actual harvest and application methods determine the correct reporting category; the distinction is the record’s partial-dermis autologous skin harvest versus the alternative of epidermis-only tissue harvested for graft.

B:

Full-thickness grafts transfer all dermal thickness and require donor-site closure; technique and recipient location separate these from partial-thickness sheets; the chart records partial-dermis autologous skin harvest rather than full epidermis and dermis transplanted.

D:

Local rotation flap transfer refers to advancement or rotation of adjacent skin with an intact blood supply rather than graft transfer or substitute application, but the documented clinical work is partial-dermis autologous skin harvest; choosing it would misclassify the documented encounter.

Question 564

A physician applies circumferential rigid material from below the elbow to the hand for a wrist condition. How should this completed operation be classified?

  1. Joint strapping
  2. Short-arm cast application
  3. Wrist splint application
  4. Long-arm cast application

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A cast surrounds the limb with rigid immobilization. Whether separate application is payable depends on who provides definitive fracture treatment and payer rules.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Strapping supports a region with tape or similar material rather than casting it in rigid circumferential material; documentation of method matters; the scenario instead describes rigid circumferential forearm immobilization, without demonstrating support by therapeutic adhesive strapping.

C:

Splinting provides support without a full circumferential cast; the practitioner must distinguish application work from bundled fracture care or a separately supplied device; the controlling finding is rigid circumferential forearm immobilization, which is distinct from noncircumferential wrist immobilizer.

D:

This alternative, Long-arm cast application, concerns circumferential immobilization extending above the elbow rather than a short-arm cast, wrist splint, strapping, or traction pin; the alternative is not supported by the documented rigid circumferential forearm immobilization.

Question 565

An enlarged cervical node is sampled by needle without excising the intact node. Which choice most accurately names the work performed?

  1. Regional lymphadenectomy
  2. Single lymph node excision
  3. Bone marrow aspirate collection
  4. Lymph node needle biopsy

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Percutaneous lymph-node sampling produces cytology or core tissue. It differs from removing the full node or performing a basin dissection.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Regional node dissection removes an anatomic group for staging or treatment; its extent exceeds a single-node biopsy; this clinical evidence establishes percutaneous sampling of lymphatic tissue, not systematic excision of a nodal basin.

B:

Excisional node biopsy removes an entire selected lymph node; it should not be described as a systematic regional lymphadenectomy; what was actually documented is percutaneous sampling of lymphatic tissue, not the different evidence of removal of one complete selected node.

C:

This alternative, Bone marrow aspirate collection, concerns sampling of marrow from a bone rather than excision, mapping, or needle biopsy of a lymph node; the alternative is not supported by the documented percutaneous sampling of lymphatic tissue.

Question 566

A superficial tract between anal canal and skin is laid open to permit healing. Which technique is supported by the operative report?

  1. Injection of botulinum toxin for anal fissure
  2. Excisional hemorrhoidectomy
  3. Anal fistulotomy
  4. Rubber-band hemorrhoid ligation

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Fistulotomy opens the fistula tract along its length. It is not removal of a hemorrhoid or division of the internal sphincter solely for fissure.

Incorrect Answers

A:

In Injection of botulinum toxin for anal fissure, the work centers on chemical relaxation of anal sphincter by injection rather than operative sphincter incision, hemorrhoid treatment, or fistulotomy; instead, the report records laying open an anal fistula tract, which supports a different classification.

B:

Hemorrhoidectomy removes symptomatic hemorrhoidal tissue; number and sites of bundles may determine the applicable service, rather than counting rubber bands; the controlling finding is laying open an anal fistula tract, which is distinct from surgical excision of hemorrhoidal tissue.

D:

Banding treats internal hemorrhoidal tissue without formal excision; it differs from surgical hemorrhoidectomy and anal fistula treatment; the operative or visit note documents laying open an anal fistula tract instead of elastic ligation of internal hemorrhoid.

Question 567

An extractor cup applies controlled traction to the fetal head during vaginal birth. Which reported approach and procedure combination is described?

  1. Forceps-assisted vaginal delivery
  2. Cesarean delivery
  3. Assisted vaginal breech extraction
  4. Vacuum-assisted vaginal delivery

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Vacuum assistance is operative vaginal delivery using suction apparatus. It differs from forceps blades or delivery through uterine incision.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Forceps are mechanical grasping instruments used in an assisted vaginal delivery; their use is distinct from vacuum extraction and cesarean section; the reported work involves instrumental vaginal delivery using vacuum cup and does not establish operative vaginal birth using forceps.

B:

Cesarean birth is a surgical delivery via hysterotomy and abdominal access; prenatal and postpartum billing scope must be separated when applicable; this clinical evidence establishes instrumental vaginal delivery using vacuum cup, not fetal delivery through uterine incision.

C:

Assisted vaginal breech extraction is supported by documentation of documented vaginal extraction of a breech fetus rather than vertex spontaneous, forceps, vacuum, or cesarean delivery; here the decisive finding is instrumental vaginal delivery using vacuum cup; the defining work for this distractor is absent.

Question 568

A glaucoma procedure creates an alternate aqueous outflow pathway beneath conjunctiva. Which choice most accurately names the work performed?

  1. Trabeculectomy
  2. Corneal transplantation
  3. Excision of conjunctival pterygium
  4. Laser peripheral iridotomy

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Trabeculectomy lowers intraocular pressure by filtering aqueous humor. It differs from creating a small laser opening in peripheral iris.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Keratoplasty restores the corneal surface or thickness, distinct from surgery on the internal crystalline lens; layer depth determines the procedure variant; to select this alternative the report would need donor corneal tissue replacing patient's cornea, whereas it identifies surgical filtration channel for aqueous humor.

C:

The Excision of conjunctival pterygium choice presumes surface removal of fibrovascular conjunctival growth crossing the cornea, not cataract, trabeculectomy, keratoplasty, or laser iridotomy; the record instead establishes surgical filtration channel for aqueous humor, making that alternative an inaccurate description.

D:

Iridotomy makes an iris aperture, commonly for narrow-angle disease; it is not lens extraction or external filtration surgery; the distinction is the record’s surgical filtration channel for aqueous humor versus the alternative of laser hole created through peripheral iris.

Question 569

Contrast passes through the uterine cavity and fallopian tubes under fluoroscopy to evaluate tubal patency. Which study matches the documented images and procedure?

  1. Fluoroscopic voiding cystourethrogram
  2. Hysterosalpingography
  3. Direct joint arthrography
  4. Myelography

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

HSG uses radiographic contrast to examine uterine contour and tubal spill. It differs from contrast imaging of bowel, joints, or blood vessels.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The required element for Fluoroscopic voiding cystourethrogram is retrograde filling of the bladder with contrast during voiding rather than imaging biliary, uterine, spinal, or articular spaces; what is described is fluoroscopic uterine and tubal contrast passage, without evidence for the alternative feature.

C:

Arthrography studies a joint cavity with introduced contrast; it differs from angiography of blood vessels or imaging of the bile ducts; the controlling finding is fluoroscopic uterine and tubal contrast passage, which is distinct from contrast instilled directly into synovial joint.

D:

Myelography images the spinal CSF space after intrathecal contrast; it is not an ordinary MRI spine or direct joint injection; to select this alternative the report would need intrathecal contrast study of spinal canal, whereas it identifies fluoroscopic uterine and tubal contrast passage.

Question 570

A wound specimen is incubated under conditions intended to isolate common aerobic bacteria. Which completed panel or measurement is described?

  1. Rapid streptococcal antigen immunoassay
  2. PCR-based pathogen assay
  3. Acid-fast bacillus culture
  4. Routine bacterial culture

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Culture grows viable organisms and may require separate identification. It is not a direct molecular amplification assay or a fungal culture.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This alternative, Rapid streptococcal antigen immunoassay, concerns direct pathogen-antigen detection rather than a cultured organism or nucleic-acid amplification; the alternative is not supported by the documented viable aerobic bacterial growth from specimen.

B:

Molecular amplification detects genetic targets, often without requiring viable culture growth; reporting depends on organism and assay type; the documented detail of viable aerobic bacterial growth from specimen prevents classifying it as nucleic acid amplification of pathogen target.

C:

AFB culture targets organisms requiring distinct media and longer incubation; it differs from routine aerobic bacterial culture and from nucleic acid amplification; this clinical evidence establishes viable aerobic bacterial growth from specimen, not culture for mycobacteria from respiratory sample.

Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Practice Tests