AAPC CPC (Certified Professional Coder) Practice Test 43

Question 420

An item is sold as new rather than previously used equipment. How should the Level II classification be identified?

  1. DME modifier RA for replacement
  2. Used equipment modifier UE
  3. New equipment modifier NU
  4. DME repair versus replacement

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

NU identifies new equipment where modifier use is appropriate. A code still must accurately describe the item being supplied.

Incorrect Answers

A:

DME modifier RA for replacement reflects replacement of a DME item, not new or used acquisition classification, rental billing, or repair reporting, whereas the clinical note identifies newly supplied equipment for purchase; the different evidence changes the classification.

B:

UE can signal used equipment under applicable payer policy; it is not a rental-status marker; the documented detail of newly supplied equipment for purchase prevents classifying it as previously used DME being supplied.

D:

Device service, repair, and replacement have different code and coverage rules; reporting a replacement device for a limited repair can overstate the supplied item; the patient record supports newly supplied equipment for purchase rather than the alternative finding of repair work rather than a new DME item.

Question 421

Tracer mapping identifies the first draining lymph node, which is removed for metastatic staging. Which listed service reflects the actual surgical technique?

  1. Full-thickness skin graft reconstruction after tumor excision
  2. Excision of skin cancer recurrence
  3. Sentinel lymph node biopsy
  4. Malignant lesion excision

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Sentinel-node biopsy samples selected drainage nodes for staging rather than performing a full nodal basin dissection. Separately reportable mapping depends on actual work and guidelines.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This alternative, Full-thickness skin graft reconstruction after tumor excision, concerns reconstruction with a harvested complete dermal graft rather than tumor removal or sentinel-node staging; the alternative is not supported by the documented selective first-draining lymph node sampling.

B:

Current recurrent tumor is active malignancy, and its excision requires site and diameter documentation; the previous scar does not convert new cancer treatment into routine scar revision; the distinction is the record’s selective first-draining lymph node sampling versus the alternative of surgical excision of active recurrent skin cancer.

D:

Malignant cutaneous excision uses the total excised diameter including margins and site-specific coding groups; it differs from freezing premalignant lesions or taking only a biopsy; the chart records selective first-draining lymph node sampling rather than full-thickness removal of confirmed malignant skin lesion.

Question 422

A ruptured calcaneal tendon is surgically reapproximated to restore plantar flexion. Which completed intervention does this operative description support?

  1. Achilles tendon rupture repair
  2. Ankle joint arthrodesis
  3. Plantar fascia release
  4. Hammertoe correction

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Achilles repair restores continuity of the heel cord. The documentation differs from plantar fascial release or corrective forefoot osteotomy.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Ankle joint arthrodesis reflects fusion of the ankle joint rather than Achilles, plantar fascia, toe-hammer, or hallux-valgus corrective work, whereas the clinical note identifies direct surgical repair of ruptured heel cord; the different evidence changes the classification.

C:

Fascia release treats plantar heel pain by cutting the diseased fascial band; it is separate from Achilles tendon repair and bony realignment; the chart records direct surgical repair of ruptured heel cord rather than therapeutic division of plantar fascia.

D:

Hammertoe surgery addresses fixed toe deformity, often by arthroplasty or fusion of a toe joint; it is not first-metatarsal bunion realignment; the chart records direct surgical repair of ruptured heel cord rather than corrective operation on flexed lesser toe.

Question 423

A narrowed peripheral artery is dilated by inflation of a catheter balloon. What specific intervention does the note establish?

  1. Intravascular stent placement
  2. Balloon angioplasty
  3. Diagnostic arterial angiography
  4. Catheter-directed intra-arterial thrombolysis

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Angioplasty mechanically expands a stenotic lumen. It differs from stent deployment or removing atheroma with an atherectomy device.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A vascular stent provides an implanted scaffold; if angioplasty is integral to stenting in the selected territory, current code bundling rules govern reporting; this clinical evidence establishes balloon-based enlargement of artery, not permanent intraluminal vascular scaffold.

C:

Angiography images vessels using contrast; separate diagnostic reporting alongside treatment depends on strict documentation and applicable rules; visualization alone is not angioplasty; the patient record supports balloon-based enlargement of artery rather than the alternative finding of contrast-based arterial lumen imaging only.

D:

Catheter-directed intra-arterial thrombolysis corresponds to delivery of a clot-dissolving agent into an artery rather than angiography, balloon dilation, atherectomy, or stent deployment; the record specifies balloon-based enlargement of artery. Those details establish different classifications.

Question 424

ERCP identifies an obstructed pancreatic duct and an internal plastic stent is inserted to maintain patency. Which anatomical operation is indicated by the described work?

  1. Pancreatic duct stent placement
  2. Pancreaticoduodenectomy
  3. Distal pancreatectomy
  4. Pancreatic pseudocyst drainage

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Duct stenting establishes internal drainage across a narrowing. It does not itself amount to pancreatic resection or pseudocyst fenestration.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Pancreaticoduodenectomy refers to major open resection of pancreatic head and adjacent duodenum rather than distal pancreatic removal, stent placement, cyst drainage, or FNA, but the documented clinical work is insertion of stent within pancreatic duct; choosing it would misclassify the documented encounter.

C:

Distal pancreatectomy is a resection of the gland's left-sided portion; it differs from a Whipple-type proximal operation and from diagnostic needle sampling; the reported work involves insertion of stent within pancreatic duct and does not establish resection of pancreatic body and tail.

D:

Drainage creates an outflow for a fluid collection rather than removing a solid pancreatic tumor; technique may be endoscopic or surgical and determines coding; the chart records insertion of stent within pancreatic duct rather than internal drainage of matured pancreatic fluid collection.

Question 425

First-trimester sampling obtains placental villi for fetal genetic analysis. Which reported approach and procedure combination is described?

  1. Umbilical artery Doppler surveillance
  2. Chorionic villus sampling
  3. Fetal biophysical profile
  4. Amniocentesis

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

CVS retrieves chorionic tissue rather than amniotic fluid. Its sampling route and technique distinguish it from later amniocentesis.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The required element for Umbilical artery Doppler surveillance is Doppler measurement of fetal-placental arterial flow instead of fetal tracing, ultrasound biophysical scoring, or invasive genetic sampling; what is described is collection of placental chorionic villi, without evidence for the alternative feature.

C:

A BPP evaluates multiple fetal well-being parameters, sometimes combined with NST; it is more comprehensive than a standalone nonstress tracing; this clinical evidence establishes collection of placental chorionic villi, not multiparameter fetal well-being evaluation by ultrasound.

D:

Amniocentesis samples amniotic fluid and may involve ultrasound guidance under specific code rules; it is not placental chorionic villus biopsy; the distinction is the record’s collection of placental chorionic villi versus the alternative of needle aspiration of amniotic fluid.

Question 426

An external silicone element indents the globe to support a retinal break. How should the clinician’s described operative work be identified?

  1. Retinal cryopexy of a tear
  2. Pars plana vitrectomy
  3. Retinal photocoagulation
  4. Scleral buckle repair

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Scleral buckling changes eye-wall contour to relieve vitreoretinal traction. It is not the same as entering the vitreous with a vitrector.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Although Retinal cryopexy of a tear may sound adjacent, it denotes transscleral freezing to seal a retinal tear rather than laser photocoagulation, intraocular injection, buckle insertion, or vitrectomy; this record documents external encircling or segmental support of retina, which is distinct from that alternative.

B:

Vitrectomy removes vitreous from posterior eye; A simple intravitreal drug injection does not involve excision of vitreous gel; the documented detail of external encircling or segmental support of retina prevents classifying it as surgical removal of posterior vitreous gel.

C:

Retinal laser therapy produces controlled burns to selected retina; it differs from externally buckling sclera or injecting medication into vitreous cavity; this clinical evidence establishes external encircling or segmental support of retina, not laser treatment applied to retinal tissue.

Question 427

Multiple low-dose projection images are reconstructed into thin breast slices during mammography. Which study matches the documented images and procedure?

  1. Breast MRI for high-risk surveillance
  2. Bilateral screening mammography
  3. Breast tomosynthesis
  4. Unilateral diagnostic mammography

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Tomosynthesis adds three-dimensional reconstructed imaging to conventional mammographic assessment. The appropriate code depends on whether screening or diagnostic imaging is performed.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This alternative, Breast MRI for high-risk surveillance, concerns magnetic resonance evaluation instead of x-ray mammography, tomosynthesis, or targeted sonography; the alternative is not supported by the documented reconstructed multi-angle breast imaging.

B:

Screening mammography is preventive imaging in an asymptomatic patient; A focal symptom or prior suspicious finding changes the exam to diagnostic evaluation; preventive bilateral breast x-ray screening is not recorded; the evidence points to reconstructed multi-angle breast imaging.

D:

Diagnostic mammography investigates a specific clinical concern, with laterality and technique documented; it differs from general screening without symptoms; the controlling finding is reconstructed multi-angle breast imaging, which is distinct from focused mammographic evaluation of symptomatic breast.

Question 428

Tissue is frozen, cut, and microscopically interpreted while the patient remains in surgery. How should the assay or procedure be identified?

  1. Fine-needle aspiration cytology
  2. Flow-cytometric immunophenotyping
  3. Intraoperative frozen-section consultation
  4. Exfoliative cervical cytology

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Frozen sections provide rapid intraoperative diagnostic guidance. They are distinct from routine permanent-section histology and require documented consultation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

FNA cytology assesses cellular material acquired by needle, rather than intact histologic tissue cores; sampling procedure and professional interpretation may have distinct codes; the scenario instead describes immediate intraoperative frozen tissue interpretation, without demonstrating microscopic assessment of aspirated cells.

B:

The distinguishing evidence for Flow-cytometric immunophenotyping would be analysis of cellular surface marker expression rather than cytology, histologic tissue examination, or frozen-section consultation; the described patient or procedure has immediate intraoperative frozen tissue interpretation, not those features.

D:

Exfoliative cytology studies collected surface cells rather than excised tissue architecture; collection, screening, and interpretation have distinct reporting contexts; epithelial cell specimen prepared for cervical cytology is not recorded; the evidence points to immediate intraoperative frozen tissue interpretation.

Question 429

An antiemetic is administered directly into an IV line over a short interval by qualified personnel. Which choice reflects the work actually performed?

  1. Therapeutic intravenous hydration
  2. Intramuscular therapeutic injection
  3. Therapeutic IV infusion
  4. Intravenous push medication

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

IV push is not reported as a prolonged infusion simply because venous access was used. Documentation should identify the route and actual administration method.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Hydration reporting requires medical necessity and appropriate time documentation; routine fluid merely keeping a vein open is generally integral to other services; the distinction is the record’s brief direct injection through IV access versus the alternative of timed IV fluid replacement for dehydration.

B:

Intramuscular therapeutic injection involves delivery of medication into skeletal muscle rather than subcutaneous injection or intravenous push, infusion, or hydration; the note describes brief direct injection through IV access instead, changing the applicable classification.

C:

Intravenous infusion delivers a drug over time, distinct from a rapid push; sequence and hierarchy rules apply when multiple services occur during one encounter; this clinical evidence establishes brief direct injection through IV access, not medication delivered through timed IV infusion.

Question 430

A minor self-limited issue is evaluated with minimal information and negligible management risk. Which visit-reporting method matches the encounter?

  1. Time-based E/M level selection
  2. Straightforward MDM
  3. Moderate MDM
  4. High MDM

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Straightforward decision making involves minimal complexity across the MDM elements. Minor symptoms do not become high-complexity simply because multiple templates were completed.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Although Time-based E/M level selection may sound adjacent, it denotes selection of a visit level from qualifying clinician time rather than assigning straightforward, low, moderate, or high MDM; this record documents minimal problem data and risk complexity, which is distinct from that alternative.

C:

Multiple stable chronic conditions can support moderate problem complexity, and active prescription management may support moderate risk; two of the three MDM elements are needed overall; the patient record supports minimal problem data and risk complexity rather than the alternative finding of at least two qualifying moderate MDM elements.

D:

High decision making requires supported high-severity elements, often including threat to bodily function and consequential management choices; A dramatic description alone is insufficient; the reported work involves minimal problem data and risk complexity and does not establish acute threat to life with high-stakes disposition.

Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Practice Tests